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Question 1 of 999CB1000006
Question 1
FlagWhich of the following best decribes the concerns arising from the agency relationship in companies?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATION
Agency issue is when agents, in this case directors, have different interest than the principal, which in this case is shareholders. So if agents are putting their interest before principal’s interest it is known as agency issues.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATION
Agency issue is when agents, in this case directors, have different interest than the principal, which in this case is shareholders. So if agents are putting their interest before principal’s interest it is known as agency issues. -
Question 2 of 999CB1000007
Question 2
FlagWhich of the following best explains why a declining share price is thought to impose some discipline on weak directors?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATION
If the share price is low then either of the two can happen, shareholder will either sell their share to a predator company at a price higher than the current market price or the shareholders will remove the directors from the board or will not re-appoint the director. So either way it imposes a discipline on weak directors.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATION
If the share price is low then either of the two can happen, shareholder will either sell their share to a predator company at a price higher than the current market price or the shareholders will remove the directors from the board or will not re-appoint the director. So either way it imposes a discipline on weak directors. -
Question 3 of 999CB1000010
Question 3
FlagWhich of the following best describes the possibility of an agency relationship between company directors and debenture holders?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATION
Option A is incorrect because it is possible for directors to run the company into insolvency which will reduce the payout to debenture-holders. So even debenture-holders are not protected from weak directors.
Option B is correct because it is the risky behavior of directors that will run the company into ruin.
Option C is incorrect because agency relationship arises when someone else is supposed to make decisions on behalf of you for your interests, and directors are agents for both shareholders and debenture-holders.
Option D is incorrect because debenture-holders do not bear the same agency risk as shareholders.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATION
Option A is incorrect because it is possible for directors to run the company into insolvency which will reduce the payout to debenture-holders. So even debenture-holders are not protected from weak directors.
Option B is correct because it is the risky behavior of directors that will run the company into ruin.
Option C is incorrect because agency relationship arises when someone else is supposed to make decisions on behalf of you for your interests, and directors are agents for both shareholders and debenture-holders.
Option D is incorrect because debenture-holders do not bear the same agency risk as shareholders. -
Question 4 of 999CB1000012
Question 4
FlagWhich of the following is legally responsible for the commitment owed by a limited company to the company’s lenders?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATION
In case of default of payment of interest payment or loan re-payment as it is the directors who will be held responsible as they are responsible for managing the day-to-day affairs of the company.
Company’s external auditors are responsible for auditing the company and to tell the shareholders that financial statements represent true and fair view of the company.
In case of default company’s shareholders will at max loose the money invested by them in the company they will not be personally humiliated.
Company’s treasurer will also not be responsible for the loan.
Although not there in the syllabus, but for this question it would be helpful to know that in case a company defaults on the payment of interest or loan re-payment for 1 year then the directors will be disqualified from being re-appointed in this company for 5 years.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATION
In case of default of payment of interest payment or loan re-payment as it is the directors who will be held responsible as they are responsible for managing the day-to-day affairs of the company.
Company’s external auditors are responsible for auditing the company and to tell the shareholders that financial statements represent true and fair view of the company.
In case of default company’s shareholders will at max loose the money invested by them in the company they will not be personally humiliated.
Company’s treasurer will also not be responsible for the loan.
Although not there in the syllabus, but for this question it would be helpful to know that in case a company defaults on the payment of interest or loan re-payment for 1 year then the directors will be disqualified from being re-appointed in this company for 5 years. -
Question 5 of 999CB1000020
Question 5
FlagWhich of the following best describes the relationships between the interests of major groups of stakeholders in a limited company?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
In a company there will be if not more thousands of stakeholders, so it is not possible to satisfy all of them. So, option A is incorrect.
Option B is incorrect because as per contractual theory, some stakeholders will have informal contract with the company.
Option C is correct because this is what contractual theory says.
Option D is incorrect because stakeholders will not co-operate with each other as everyone has different viewpoints and objectives.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
In a company there will be if not more thousands of stakeholders, so it is not possible to satisfy all of them. So, option A is incorrect.
Option B is incorrect because as per contractual theory, some stakeholders will have informal contract with the company.
Option C is correct because this is what contractual theory says.
Option D is incorrect because stakeholders will not co-operate with each other as everyone has different viewpoints and objectives. -
Question 6 of 999CB1000022
Question 6
FlagWhy might maximisation of profit be a less acceptable corporate objective than maximisation of shareholder wealth?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because it is to directors’ interest to increase the profit because some of the directors’ bonus and remuneration are linked with the profit of the company.
Option B is correct because profit is a short-term measure of success, what matters to the shareholders is how consistently the firm can maintain their earning.
Option C is incorrect because whether profits would lead to pressure of dividends or not will depend on the shareholders’ objectives.
Option D is incorrect because shareholders do benefit from profit, higher profit might lead to an increase in share price.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because it is to directors’ interest to increase the profit because some of the directors’ bonus and remuneration are linked with the profit of the company.
Option B is correct because profit is a short-term measure of success, what matters to the shareholders is how consistently the firm can maintain their earning.
Option C is incorrect because whether profits would lead to pressure of dividends or not will depend on the shareholders’ objectives.
Option D is incorrect because shareholders do benefit from profit, higher profit might lead to an increase in share price. -
Question 7 of 999CB1000023
Question 7
FlagWhich of the following is an example of an agency problem?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because it is not relevant.
Option B is correct because directors awarding themselves excessive salaries mean lower profit left for the shareholders.
Option C is incorrect because it is not relevant.
Option D is incorrect because it is not relevant.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because it is not relevant.
Option B is correct because directors awarding themselves excessive salaries mean lower profit left for the shareholders.
Option C is incorrect because it is not relevant.
Option D is incorrect because it is not relevant. -
Question 8 of 999CB1000024
Question 8
FlagWhich of the following best explains why the maximisation of shareholder wealth is said to be the primary objective for company directors?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because maximization of shareholder wealth does not align directors’ interest with all shareholders. The theory says that those who like this objective will stay and others will sell their share and a new shareholder who have the same objective will buy the share.
Option B is incorrect because agency problems are still going to be there even with this theory being followed.
Option C is incorrect because this objective does not maximize profit.
Option D is correct because it does provide a reasonable measure of evaluating the performance of directors. If the director is able to maximize shareholders’ wealth then they are good otherwise they are not.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because maximization of shareholder wealth does not align directors’ interest with all shareholders. The theory says that those who like this objective will stay and others will sell their share and a new shareholder who have the same objective will buy the share.
Option B is incorrect because agency problems are still going to be there even with this theory being followed.
Option C is incorrect because this objective does not maximize profit.
Option D is correct because it does provide a reasonable measure of evaluating the performance of directors. If the director is able to maximize shareholders’ wealth then they are good otherwise they are not. -
Question 9 of 999CB1000025
Question 9
FlagWhich of the following statements best describes the driver of the market price of a quoted company?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
If a company is expected to make high future dividend payments then the share price of the company will be driven up by all those investors looking for immediate income.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
If a company is expected to make high future dividend payments then the share price of the company will be driven up by all those investors looking for immediate income. -
Question 10 of 999CB1000026
Question 10
FlagWhich of the following statements describes the agency problem?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
In agent-business relationship, agents are the ones making decisions on the behalf of principal. So principal feel that they cannot trust the agents.
Option D is a correct statement but that does not describe agency problem.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
In agent-business relationship, agents are the ones making decisions on the behalf of principal. So principal feel that they cannot trust the agents.
Option D is a correct statement but that does not describe agency problem. -
Question 11 of 999CB1000027
Question 11
FlagWhy would the directors of a quoted company spend more than necessary on their external audit?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Quoted company would spend more than necessary on external audit because a qualified audit opinion for a quoted company can cause a lot of problem for the directors of the company.
Option A, B and C are completely non-sensical.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Quoted company would spend more than necessary on external audit because a qualified audit opinion for a quoted company can cause a lot of problem for the directors of the company.
Option A, B and C are completely non-sensical. -
Question 12 of 999CB1000028
Question 12
FlagHow can the directors of quoted companies deal with the different risk preferences of the many shareholders who have invested in their companies?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Option B is incorrect because not every investor wants the company to maximize the return some just want the company to provide steady source of income.
Option C is incorrect because not every investor wants the company to minimize the risk, some want the company to invest in risky projects and make high return.
Option D is incorrect because every shareholder will give their own objective in the feedback and it is not feasible and practical to achieve everything that shareholder wants.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Option B is incorrect because not every investor wants the company to maximize the return some just want the company to provide steady source of income.
Option C is incorrect because not every investor wants the company to minimize the risk, some want the company to invest in risky projects and make high return.
Option D is incorrect because every shareholder will give their own objective in the feedback and it is not feasible and practical to achieve everything that shareholder wants. -
Question 13 of 999CB1000029
Question 13
FlagWhich of the following would be a suitable duty for a non-executive director?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Appropriate for non-executive director is deciding on terms and conditions and remuneration of executive directors. Since it would be expected that they are going to be unbiased.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Appropriate for non-executive director is deciding on terms and conditions and remuneration of executive directors. Since it would be expected that they are going to be unbiased. -
Question 14 of 999CB1000030
Question 14
FlagWhich of the following best summarises the attitude that the directors of a quoted company should take towards social responsibility?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Option B is incorrect because logically speaking director of no profit making company will place social responsibility of shareholder wealth maximization objective.
Option C is incorrect because logically speaking in general no director will place social responsibility over their own interests.
Option D is absolutely incorrect.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Option B is incorrect because logically speaking director of no profit making company will place social responsibility of shareholder wealth maximization objective.
Option C is incorrect because logically speaking in general no director will place social responsibility over their own interests.
Option D is absolutely incorrect. -
Question 15 of 999CB1000031
Question 15
FlagHow should the directors of a quoted company view agency problems?
Correct
The correct answer is D
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because agency problem can be reduced through transparency and accounting.
Option B is incorrect because agency problem do exist in real life.
Option C is incorrect because if shareholders are concerned then directors also need to be concerned if they want to stay as directors of the company.
Option D is correct.Incorrect
The correct answer is D
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because agency problem can be reduced through transparency and accounting.
Option B is incorrect because agency problem do exist in real life.
Option C is incorrect because if shareholders are concerned then directors also need to be concerned if they want to stay as directors of the company.
Option D is correct. -
Question 16 of 999CB1000033
Question 16
FlagWhy are quoted companies required to have non-executive directors on their boards?
Correct
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
Non-executive directors are usually hired to set the terms and conditions and remuneration of executive directors.
If Option A and B was correct about any director and it was known to all then that director would not be hired in the first place.
Option D is incorrect because some non-executive directors charge as much as and sometimes even more than executive directors.Incorrect
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
Non-executive directors are usually hired to set the terms and conditions and remuneration of executive directors.
If Option A and B was correct about any director and it was known to all then that director would not be hired in the first place.
Option D is incorrect because some non-executive directors charge as much as and sometimes even more than executive directors. -
Question 17 of 999CB1000034
Question 17
FlagWhich of the following is an agency cost?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Had there been no agency issues between directors and shareholders, and shareholders would have 100% trust over the directors then theoretically speaking there would not have been a need for external auditing.
In a strawberry world where everyone can trust everyone on what they say there would not be a need for an external auditor.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Had there been no agency issues between directors and shareholders, and shareholders would have 100% trust over the directors then theoretically speaking there would not have been a need for external auditing.
In a strawberry world where everyone can trust everyone on what they say there would not be a need for an external auditor. -
Question 18 of 999CB1000181
Question 18
FlagWhich of the following best describes the potential exposure of a member of a limited liability partnership (LLP)?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because members of LLP are exposed to risk of loosing the money they have invested in the organization.
Option B is correct because members of LLP are exposed to risk of loosing the money they have invested in the organization.
Option C is incorrect because members of LLP are not personally liable for the debts of the business.
Joint and severally liable basically means that if one of the partner in partnership firm takes out loan in excess to the amount he was authorized to, then every partner of the firm will be liable for the loan. But this is not the case in a LLP firm and in such case only the member who acted beyond his authorization will be personally liable.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because members of LLP are exposed to risk of loosing the money they have invested in the organization.
Option B is correct because members of LLP are exposed to risk of loosing the money they have invested in the organization.
Option C is incorrect because members of LLP are not personally liable for the debts of the business.
Joint and severally liable basically means that if one of the partner in partnership firm takes out loan in excess to the amount he was authorized to, then every partner of the firm will be liable for the loan. But this is not the case in a LLP firm and in such case only the member who acted beyond his authorization will be personally liable. -
Question 19 of 999CB1000182
Question 19
FlagIf a company has the phrase ‘Public Limited Company’ or the abbreviation ‘plc’ after its name you know:
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
It is not necessary for a public company to be large it can be small as well. Also, it is not necessary for every public company to be listed on stock exchange. And, it is also not necessary for a public to have an established track record, there are many public companies who have defaulted in the filing of annual returns and financial statements.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
It is not necessary for a public company to be large it can be small as well. Also, it is not necessary for every public company to be listed on stock exchange. And, it is also not necessary for a public to have an established track record, there are many public companies who have defaulted in the filing of annual returns and financial statements. -
Question 20 of 999CB1000183
Question 20
FlagWhat aspect of a limited liability partnership (LLP) is ‘limited’?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because there is no monetary limit to how much the members is liable to in a LLP as this is not a company limited by guarantee.
Option B is incorrect because there cannot be no such agreement in a LLP.
Option C is incorrect because members can suffer due to the acts or omission of other members as the business can get closed down or the members can be publicly humiliated and harassed.
Option D is correct because limited liability means that legally they are not liable to more than what they have invested in the business. Their personal assets cannot be used to pay off the creditors.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because there is no monetary limit to how much the members is liable to in a LLP as this is not a company limited by guarantee.
Option B is incorrect because there cannot be no such agreement in a LLP.
Option C is incorrect because members can suffer due to the acts or omission of other members as the business can get closed down or the members can be publicly humiliated and harassed.
Option D is correct because limited liability means that legally they are not liable to more than what they have invested in the business. Their personal assets cannot be used to pay off the creditors. -
Question 21 of 999CB1000185
Question 21
FlagA company has issued £0.25 shares at a premium of £0.20 per share. The shareholders have each paid £0.22 for each share that they hold. What is the maximum liability that each shareholder might bear with respect to each share in the event that the company cannot pay its liabilities?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Most of the times the premium on the share is collected at the time of the first call itself, so the remaining amount that shareholder has not paid to the company yet is the face value of the share and they are liable to pay that.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Most of the times the premium on the share is collected at the time of the first call itself, so the remaining amount that shareholder has not paid to the company yet is the face value of the share and they are liable to pay that. -
Question 22 of 999CB1000187
Question 22
FlagWhich of the following statements about limited companies is correct?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because shareholders can be personally liable if they are the directors of the company and the corporate veil is lifted, this is a scenario in which the veil that was there between the company and its directors are lifted.
Option B is incorrect because it is not necessary for the shareholders of a small company to be the directors of the company, small company in India means a private company which has a paid-up-share capital of less than 4 crore rupees and turnover of less than 40 crore rupees.
Option C is correct because directors of the company can be shareholders.
Option D is incorrect because it is not necessary for a sole trader or partnership to make the owners of the company as managers, they can hire an outsider to be a manager of the business.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because shareholders can be personally liable if they are the directors of the company and the corporate veil is lifted, this is a scenario in which the veil that was there between the company and its directors are lifted.
Option B is incorrect because it is not necessary for the shareholders of a small company to be the directors of the company, small company in India means a private company which has a paid-up-share capital of less than 4 crore rupees and turnover of less than 40 crore rupees.
Option C is correct because directors of the company can be shareholders.
Option D is incorrect because it is not necessary for a sole trader or partnership to make the owners of the company as managers, they can hire an outsider to be a manager of the business. -
Question 23 of 999CB1000190
Question 23
FlagA manufacturing company has been approached by a public limited company (PLC) that wishes to apply for trade credit. Which of the following statements about the applicant’s PLC status is correct?
Correct
The correct answer is D
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because it is not necessary for a PLC to have a stock market quotation.
Option B is incorrect because having a wide shareholding increases the risk of conflicting interest.
Option C is incorrect because there are many private companies out there which are bigger than a PLC.
Option D is correct because there are many private companies out there who are more credible than the PLC.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because it is not necessary for a PLC to have a stock market quotation.
Option B is incorrect because having a wide shareholding increases the risk of conflicting interest.
Option C is incorrect because there are many private companies out there which are bigger than a PLC.
Option D is correct because there are many private companies out there who are more credible than the PLC.
-
Question 24 of 999CB1000191
Question 24
FlagMartin has just been admitted to a long established business partnership. He has bought 20% of the partnership equity, although he has not paid for this yet. He will be entitled to 15% of the partnership profit. If the firm incurs any liability, what proportion of that liability will be Martin’s legal responsibility?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
In a partnership firm, partners are jointly and severally liable for the liabilities of the companies. So even though Martin’s share in profit/loss is 15% he would be, including all the other partners, 100% liable for the debts of the business.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
In a partnership firm, partners are jointly and severally liable for the liabilities of the companies. So even though Martin’s share in profit/loss is 15% he would be, including all the other partners, 100% liable for the debts of the business.
-
Question 25 of 999CB1000210
Question 25
FlagA UK taxpayer has disposed of four assets during the year. Which of the following gains could be subject to Capital Gains Tax?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because this is not taxable.
Option B is correct because this is a capital gain so it attracts capital gains tax.
Option C is incorrect because this is not taxable, as sale of rare sports car which was used by the taxpayer was for his personal use.
Option D is incorrect because gain made from the sale of residential house in which taxpayer was living does not attract tax.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because this is not taxable.
Option B is correct because this is a capital gain so it attracts capital gains tax.
Option C is incorrect because this is not taxable, as sale of rare sports car which was used by the taxpayer was for his personal use.
Option D is incorrect because gain made from the sale of residential house in which taxpayer was living does not attract tax.
-
Question 26 of 999CB1000211
Question 26
FlagA UK taxpayer has earned income in Australia and has paid tax to the Australian tax authorities equivalent to £10,000. Under UK tax law the income would have been subject to tax of £8,000. Which of the following is most likely to apply?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Since the taxpayer has already paid £10,000 in Australia they would not have pay any more tax in UK, as they can offset £8,000 they are supposed to pay to UK government against what they have already paid.
They cannot offset more than what they are supposed to pay.
They also cannot reclaim what they have already paid as tax to some other country.
Option D is incorrect because the taxpayer will have to declare to the UK tax authorities the total income they have earned, even the income they have earned in Australia. Plus they will also have to disclose the tax they have already paid.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Since the taxpayer has already paid £10,000 in Australia they would not have pay any more tax in UK, as they can offset £8,000 they are supposed to pay to UK government against what they have already paid.
They cannot offset more than what they are supposed to pay.
They also cannot reclaim what they have already paid as tax to some other country.
Option D is incorrect because the taxpayer will have to declare to the UK tax authorities the total income they have earned, even the income they have earned in Australia. Plus they will also have to disclose the tax they have already paid. -
Question 27 of 999CB1000212
Question 27
FlagWhat is the most logical explanation for the requirement that investment income sometimes has tax deducted at source?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The only purpose of TDS is to simplify the tax collection.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The only purpose of TDS is to simplify the tax collection.
-
Question 28 of 999CB1000213
Question 28
FlagIn many countries, capital gains are not taxed until the assets on which the gain has arisen are sold. Which of the following is the most logical explanation of this practice?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
This is done because the current market price of the asset might not be the price at which it would be sold if and when it would be sold by the taxpayer, so it is not fair to tax the taxpayer as the current market price of the asset.
Option D is incorrect because it is totally fair to tax capital gains.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
This is done because the current market price of the asset might not be the price at which it would be sold if and when it would be sold by the taxpayer, so it is not fair to tax the taxpayer as the current market price of the asset.
Option D is incorrect because it is totally fair to tax capital gains. -
Question 29 of 999CB1000214
Question 29
FlagWhich of the following best explains why many countries do not allow depreciation to be treated as an expense for tax purposes?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Depreciation is not allowed to be treated as expense because there are countless ways of calculating depreciation, and if allowed then many companies will exploit this to show lower profits and hence reduce their tax liability. So this allows a lot of discretion to the
Option A is incorrect because depreciation is a real expense.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Depreciation is not allowed to be treated as expense because there are countless ways of calculating depreciation, and if allowed then many companies will exploit this to show lower profits and hence reduce their tax liability. So this allows a lot of discretion to the
Option A is incorrect because depreciation is a real expense. -
Question 30 of 999CB1000215
Question 30
FlagA parent company has a foreign subsidiary located in a host country that does not have a double tax arrangement with the parent’s home country. The foreign subsidiary pays regular dividends to the parent company. Which of the following will apply?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONOption A is incorrect because subsidiary company will be taxed on profit earned in host country.
Option B is incorrect because parent company will be required to declare the dividends earned by them in their country.
Option C is correct.
Option D is incorrect because the dividend income is received in the home country so the tax will also be paid in the home country, the profit was earned in the host country and the tax has to be duly paid there.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONOption A is incorrect because subsidiary company will be taxed on profit earned in host country.
Option B is incorrect because parent company will be required to declare the dividends earned by them in their country.
Option C is correct.
Option D is incorrect because the dividend income is received in the home country so the tax will also be paid in the home country, the profit was earned in the host country and the tax has to be duly paid there.
-
Question 31 of 999CB1000385
Question 31
FlagWhich of the following is NOT a characteristic of Eurobonds?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:TDS is not deducted on Eurobonds, rest all the other options are true.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:TDS is not deducted on Eurobonds, rest all the other options are true.
-
Question 32 of 999CB1000387
Question 32
FlagWhich of the following long-term liabilities would normally carry the highest rate of interest?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Interest rate charged is inversely related to the risk the instrument has on it. Unsecured bank loan carries the highest risk on it so the rate charged on it is also high.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Interest rate charged is inversely related to the risk the instrument has on it. Unsecured bank loan carries the highest risk on it so the rate charged on it is also high. -
Question 33 of 999CB1000390
Question 33
FlagWhich of the following best describes the reason for a company that has secured debt issuing subordinated debt?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because cost of subordinated debt would be higher than that of the secure debt
Option B is correct because subordinated debt holders would be paid later than the other debt-holders.
Option C is incorrect because subordinated debt do not have less formalities than the secure debt.
Option D is incorrect because issue of subordinated debt will not be viewed as a sign of confidence by the market, issue of secured debt would be viewed as a sign of confidence. It will show that company is so sure that they will repay the debt that they are willing to mortgage prime asset(s) of their company.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because cost of subordinated debt would be higher than that of the secure debt
Option B is correct because subordinated debt holders would be paid later than the other debt-holders.
Option C is incorrect because subordinated debt do not have less formalities than the secure debt.
Option D is incorrect because issue of subordinated debt will not be viewed as a sign of confidence by the market, issue of secured debt would be viewed as a sign of confidence. It will show that company is so sure that they will repay the debt that they are willing to mortgage prime asset(s) of their company.
-
Question 34 of 999CB1000392
Question 34
FlagWhich of the following is most likely to explain a company’s decision to issue subordinated debt?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because a higher interest rate is charged on subordinated debt.
Option B is correct because priority of repayment will change if further senior debt is issued so senior debt holders do very so often place a restriction on further issue of senior debt.
Option C is incorrect because both subordinated debt and senior debt offer tax advantage. So that cannot be the reason for why a company would prefer to issue subordinated debt rather than senior debt.
Option D is incorrect because shareholders would still be paid at the very last so they are indifferent to what is issued by the company.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because a higher interest rate is charged on subordinated debt.
Option B is correct because priority of repayment will change if further senior debt is issued so senior debt holders do very so often place a restriction on further issue of senior debt.
Option C is incorrect because both subordinated debt and senior debt offer tax advantage. So that cannot be the reason for why a company would prefer to issue subordinated debt rather than senior debt.
Option D is incorrect because shareholders would still be paid at the very last so they are indifferent to what is issued by the company.
-
Question 35 of 999CB1000395
Question 35
FlagA company wishes to issue convertible stock with a conversion date in five years’ time.
Which of the following proposals for the conversion terms is likely to be the most attractive to investors?Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because the conversion is not compulsory.
Option B is incorrect because it will not continue as loan stock indefinitely, it will get repaid eventually.
Option C is correct because this is what happens in case of convertible securities.
Option D is incorrect because such conversion terms are not mentioned in the question.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because the conversion is not compulsory.
Option B is incorrect because it will not continue as loan stock indefinitely, it will get repaid eventually.
Option C is correct because this is what happens in case of convertible securities.
Option D is incorrect because such conversion terms are not mentioned in the question.
-
Question 36 of 999CB1000396
Question 36
FlagWhich of the following best explains what is meant by the ‘Euro’ prefix in Eurobonds?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Eurobonds has its origin from Europe that is why it has Euro as its prefix. Now it refers to all those bonds which are issued offshore, outside of legal or tax jurisdictions.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Eurobonds has its origin from Europe that is why it has Euro as its prefix. Now it refers to all those bonds which are issued offshore, outside of legal or tax jurisdictions. -
Question 37 of 999CB1000397
Question 37
FlagWhich of the following is NOT a disadvantage of issuing preference shares?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONDirectors do not have the discretion to suspend the dividends of the preference shareholders. If equity shareholders want they can refuse to get the dividends paid for anyone, including the preference shareholders; but after a certain period even the preference shareholders would get the voting rights.
All the others are disadvantages of issuing preference shares.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONDirectors do not have the discretion to suspend the dividends of the preference shareholders. If equity shareholders want they can refuse to get the dividends paid for anyone, including the preference shareholders; but after a certain period even the preference shareholders would get the voting rights.
All the others are disadvantages of issuing preference shares. -
Question 38 of 999CB1000398
Question 38
FlagWhich of the following best describes the par value of an equity share?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Par value means the face value of the shares, and this value is only there for the book-keeping purpose. In real life, shares are often issued at a premium. And sometimes they even trade at a price which is higher or lower than the par value.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Par value means the face value of the shares, and this value is only there for the book-keeping purpose. In real life, shares are often issued at a premium. And sometimes they even trade at a price which is higher or lower than the par value. -
Question 39 of 999CB1000401
Question 39
FlagWhat are the potential implications for debenture holders of an increase in interest rates in the economy?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Debentures are issued at a certain interest rate they are not changed with the change in the interest rate prevailing in the economy. So the monetary value of the cashflows will not change but the real value of cashflows will fall and hence value of debentures will decrease.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Debentures are issued at a certain interest rate they are not changed with the change in the interest rate prevailing in the economy. So the monetary value of the cashflows will not change but the real value of cashflows will fall and hence value of debentures will decrease. -
Question 40 of 999CB1000402
Question 40
FlagWhy might buyers be prepared to buy zero-coupon debentures?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Security on a normal debenture and a zero-coupon debenture would be same.
Debentures would be issued at a significant lower value than its nominal or redeemable value.
No one would purchase a zero-coupon debenture issued at a premium.
This is no valid reason to buy a zero-coupon debenture.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Security on a normal debenture and a zero-coupon debenture would be same.
Debentures would be issued at a significant lower value than its nominal or redeemable value.
No one would purchase a zero-coupon debenture issued at a premium.
This is no valid reason to buy a zero-coupon debenture. -
Question 41 of 999CB1000406
Question 41
FlagIt has been suggested that the long-term returns from investing in equities are higher than those for many other types of investment. What does this tell us about the cost of equity to the issuing companies?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Explanation:
Option A is correct because equity shares are a relatively expensive source of finance, this is because they carry the highest risk so a return higher than other securities are expected to be paid here.
Option B is incorrect because cost of equity shares are expensive.
Option C is incorrect because there is a link between returns offered to the shareholders and the cost of equity.
Option D is incorrect because there is no mention of word relatively here.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Explanation:
Option A is correct because equity shares are a relatively expensive source of finance, this is because they carry the highest risk so a return higher than other securities are expected to be paid here.
Option B is incorrect because cost of equity shares are expensive.
Option C is incorrect because there is a link between returns offered to the shareholders and the cost of equity.
Option D is incorrect because there is no mention of word relatively here.
-
Question 42 of 999CB1000408
Question 42
FlagWhich of the following cases is a suitable situation in which a convertible security might be issued?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because it is irrelevant.
Option B is correct because cost of debt of a convertible security is lower than that of a normal debt.
Issuing convertible security has nothing to do with gearing ratio. So option C and D.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because it is irrelevant.
Option B is correct because cost of debt of a convertible security is lower than that of a normal debt.
Issuing convertible security has nothing to do with gearing ratio. So option C and D. -
Question 43 of 999CB1000411
Question 43
FlagWhen does a bondholder receive the nominal value of a bond?
Correct
The correct answer is D
Explanation:
Nominal value of debt is received at the time of maturity, it does not make sense to receive nominal value of debt at the time of purchase or annually or at the time of coupon payment.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D
Explanation:
Nominal value of debt is received at the time of maturity, it does not make sense to receive nominal value of debt at the time of purchase or annually or at the time of coupon payment.
-
Question 44 of 999CB1000414
Question 44
FlagA company has issued subordinated debt securities. Which of the following reflects the priority that would apply in the event of default?
Correct
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
Debt will always be repaid before shares.
Mortgage loans will be paid before the subordinated debt, because subordinated debt are junior debt.
Preference shareholders will be paid before the equity share holders.Incorrect
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
Debt will always be repaid before shares.
Mortgage loans will be paid before the subordinated debt, because subordinated debt are junior debt.
Preference shareholders will be paid before the equity share holders. -
Question 45 of 999CB1000418
Question 45
FlagA company has 10 million ordinary shares in issue with a market price of £2.00 per share. The company is about to make a rights issue that will give the right to buy one new share for £1 .60 for every five shares previously held. What is the theoretical ex-rights price of the company’s shares?
Correct
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
So for every one share 0.2 shares are issued.
Theoretical ex-rights price $=\frac{2+0.2 \times 1.6}{1.2}=1.93$
Incorrect
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
So for every one share 0.2 shares are issued.
Theoretical ex-rights price $=\frac{2+0.2 \times 1.6}{1.2}=1.93$
-
Question 46 of 999CB1000420
Question 46
FlagIn certain circumstances a stock exchange may grant a quotation for a company even though the company is not making any new shares or existing shares available to the market. This method of obtaining a quotation is known as:
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
An introduction will grant a quotation for a company even though the company is not making any new shares or existing shares available to the market.
All other requires the company to make issue of shares.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
An introduction will grant a quotation for a company even though the company is not making any new shares or existing shares available to the market.
All other requires the company to make issue of shares. -
Question 47 of 999CB1000426
Question 47
FlagHold plc has 20 million shares outstanding priced at £5 a share. A rights issue will allow one share to be purchased for every five shares currently held by shareholders for £3 each. Which of the following is true?
Correct
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
So for every one share 0.2 shares are issued.
Theoretical ex-rights price $=\frac{5+0.2 \times 3}{1.2}=4.67$
Incorrect
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
So for every one share 0.2 shares are issued.
Theoretical ex-rights price $=\frac{5+0.2 \times 3}{1.2}=4.67$
-
Question 48 of 999CB1000430
Question 48
FlagA quoted company made a substantial rights issue. A shareholder who had a substantial shareholding did not wish to take up the right to buy shares and forgot to sell those rights. Which of the following best describes the effects of this forgetful shareholder’s actions?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
The existing shareholders have the right to buy the shares further issued by the company, and the shareholders can either buy those right shares or sell the rights to someone else. If they forget to sell those rights then those rights would be sold on behalf of them. So the forgetful shareholders was no worse off.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
The existing shareholders have the right to buy the shares further issued by the company, and the shareholders can either buy those right shares or sell the rights to someone else. If they forget to sell those rights then those rights would be sold on behalf of them. So the forgetful shareholders was no worse off. -
Question 49 of 999CB1000431
Question 49
FlagWhich of the following would be the most significant constraint on the board of a company that wishes to issue additional equity shares?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Shares can only be issued at the nominal price or at a price higher than that (nominal price + premium). So if shares are currently trading at a price lower than the nominal value then the only option for the directors is to issue the shares at nominal value, but no one would buy such shares because they are already available at a price cheaper than that.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Shares can only be issued at the nominal price or at a price higher than that (nominal price + premium). So if shares are currently trading at a price lower than the nominal value then the only option for the directors is to issue the shares at nominal value, but no one would buy such shares because they are already available at a price cheaper than that. -
Question 50 of 999CB1000436
Question 50
FlagA company has 10 million shares in issue. The company’s share price is $\${4.00}$ per share. The directors are considering a one for five rights issue at $\${3.50}$ per share. Issue costs have been estimated at $800,000. Calculate the expected share price after the rights issue.
Correct
The correct answer is A
Explanation:
So for every one share 0.2 shares are issued.
Theoretical ex-rights price $=\frac{4+0.2 \times 3.5}{1.2}=3.92$
But, the company is also incurring issue cost so the theoretical ex-rights price would be lower than dollars 3.92. And, the only lower theoretical ex-right price lower than dollars 3.92 in the options is Option A.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A
Explanation:
So for every one share 0.2 shares are issued.
Theoretical ex-rights price $=\frac{4+0.2 \times 3.5}{1.2}=3.92$
But, the company is also incurring issue cost so the theoretical ex-rights price would be lower than dollars 3.92. And, the only lower theoretical ex-right price lower than dollars 3.92 in the options is Option A.
-
Question 51 of 999CB1000440
Question 51
FlagA newly formed company was funded by an equity injection, in which the shareholders purchased a total of 10,000 £1 fully-paid shares for £2.50 each. Which of the following figures will appear in the company’s statement of financial position?
Correct
The correct answer is A
Explanation:
Shares are issued at £2.50 which is £1.50 more than the nominal value so this is premium, so the share capital that would appear in the balance sheet is £10000 and the value that would appear in share premium is £15000.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A
Explanation:
Shares are issued at £2.50 which is £1.50 more than the nominal value so this is premium, so the share capital that would appear in the balance sheet is £10000 and the value that would appear in share premium is £15000.
-
Question 52 of 999CB1000442
Question 52
FlagWhy should an eligible bill of exchange be regarded as a very secure investment?
Correct
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
Eligible bill of exchange is a bill is defined as a bill the payment for which is guaranteed by a bank.Incorrect
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
Eligible bill of exchange is a bill is defined as a bill the payment for which is guaranteed by a bank. -
Question 53 of 999CB1000446
Question 53
FlagWhy might an overdraft be the cheapest way to fund working capital requirements?
Correct
The correct answer is D
Explanation:
Working capital requirement of a company is going to be fluctuating in nature, at the time of high demand they would need to maintain a higher working capital and at the time of lower demand they would need to have a lower working capital. This fluctuation in demand happens on a frequent basis so the overdraft facility is the most appropriate financial instrument to meet them.Incorrect
The correct answer is D
Explanation:
Working capital requirement of a company is going to be fluctuating in nature, at the time of high demand they would need to maintain a higher working capital and at the time of lower demand they would need to have a lower working capital. This fluctuation in demand happens on a frequent basis so the overdraft facility is the most appropriate financial instrument to meet them. -
Question 54 of 999CB1000447
Question 54
FlagWhich of the following might make it cheaper to fund the use of an asset through a finance lease rather than borrowing in order to purchase the asset outright?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
In a finance lease the risk of ownership is transferred to the lessee, so all the expenses relating to the asset is also incurred by the lessee.
Bank do not provide finance lease owner of the asset does.
Option D is incorrect because in finance lease the term of lease if close to or is the useful life of the asset.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
In a finance lease the risk of ownership is transferred to the lessee, so all the expenses relating to the asset is also incurred by the lessee.
Bank do not provide finance lease owner of the asset does.
Option D is incorrect because in finance lease the term of lease if close to or is the useful life of the asset. -
Question 55 of 999CB1000449
Question 55
FlagWhich of the following describes the cost of trade credit?
Correct
The correct answer is A
Explanation:
In case of an cash purchase the buyer will get cash discount which they miss out on if a credit purchase is made, so the cost of trade credit is included in the purchase price of the product.
Option B is incorrect because often the cost of trade credit is not transparent and is not known.Incorrect
The correct answer is A
Explanation:
In case of an cash purchase the buyer will get cash discount which they miss out on if a credit purchase is made, so the cost of trade credit is included in the purchase price of the product.
Option B is incorrect because often the cost of trade credit is not transparent and is not known. -
Question 56 of 999CB1000452
Question 56
FlagWhich of the following statements is correct?
Correct
The correct answer is A
Explanation:
Option A is correct because overdraft facility do have more flexible terms than a fixed-term loan.
Option B is incorrect because overdraft do not have an explicit agreement of when it should be repaid.
Option C is incorrect because bank can call overdraft facility as and when they want.
Option D is incorrect because overdraft is generally secured against floating charge.Incorrect
The correct answer is A
Explanation:
Option A is correct because overdraft facility do have more flexible terms than a fixed-term loan.
Option B is incorrect because overdraft do not have an explicit agreement of when it should be repaid.
Option C is incorrect because bank can call overdraft facility as and when they want.
Option D is incorrect because overdraft is generally secured against floating charge. -
Question 57 of 999CB1000454
Question 57
FlagWhich of the following situations is best suited to the purchase of a currency option?
Correct
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
Options are generally purchased to protect oneself from ‘worst possible’ outcome.
Option A is incorrect because option holder do not gain from any change in future exchange rate, they will either gain when the future exchange rate increases or when they decreases depending on what position they are holding.
Option B is incorrect because option does not eliminate all future uncertainty.Incorrect
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
Options are generally purchased to protect oneself from ‘worst possible’ outcome.
Option A is incorrect because option holder do not gain from any change in future exchange rate, they will either gain when the future exchange rate increases or when they decreases depending on what position they are holding.
Option B is incorrect because option does not eliminate all future uncertainty. -
Question 58 of 999CB1000457
Question 58
FlagAn Australian trader is due to receive a substantial receipt in Euros in three months’ time. Which of the following best explains why the trader might use a currency option rather than a currency future to hedge this transaction?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because price of options can be equally volatile as that of a future.
Option B is incorrect because counterparty of a financial future is stock exchange so credit risk is completely eliminated
Option C is correct because buying an option means trader would still make profit from the upside, here the upside is if Euro strengthens. This is because trader would want Australian dollars so they would exchange Australian dollars for Euros, so if now Euros strengthens then would receive higher Australian dollars, so this is an upside.
Option D is incorrect because trader is selling Euros for Australian dollars, so if Euros weakens then they would be able to purchase lesser Australian dollars; which is a downside risk.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because price of options can be equally volatile as that of a future.
Option B is incorrect because counterparty of a financial future is stock exchange so credit risk is completely eliminated
Option C is correct because buying an option means trader would still make profit from the upside, here the upside is if Euro strengthens. This is because trader would want Australian dollars so they would exchange Australian dollars for Euros, so if now Euros strengthens then would receive higher Australian dollars, so this is an upside.
Option D is incorrect because trader is selling Euros for Australian dollars, so if Euros weakens then they would be able to purchase lesser Australian dollars; which is a downside risk. -
Question 59 of 999CB1000459
Question 59
FlagAn Australian company entered into a futures contract to exchange Australian dollars for one million US dollars on 31 July 2014 [ie a contract to buy US dollars]. Which of the following will happen if the US dollar strengthens against the Australian dollar?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
If US Dollar strengthens against American dollars then the company will make a loss and so will only receive a partial refund of its margin, and since this is a future contract there is clearing house in between the two parties.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
If US Dollar strengthens against American dollars then the company will make a loss and so will only receive a partial refund of its margin, and since this is a future contract there is clearing house in between the two parties. -
Question 60 of 999CB1000461
Question 60
FlagAn option gives its holder the right to purchase 1,000 shares for £1 .40 each. The shares were trading at £1.20 when the options were issued. They are presently trading at £1 .30. The holder paid £0.10 per share for the option. What is the option’s strike price?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The price at which the shares are trading, that is £1.20, is the share price at the time when the options were issued.
The current share price of the shares are £1.30.
The premium of the options are £0.10.
Strike price of the options are £1.40.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The price at which the shares are trading, that is £1.20, is the share price at the time when the options were issued.
The current share price of the shares are £1.30.
The premium of the options are £0.10.
Strike price of the options are £1.40. -
Question 61 of 999CB1000464
Question 61
FlagWhat is the purpose of the margin on a futures contract?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Margin of the future contract is there to protect the counterparties from the credit risk.
The major problem with the forward contracts are that the other party might refuse to oblige the contract if the situation moves against them. So to avoid that from happening future contract has margin in it.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Margin of the future contract is there to protect the counterparties from the credit risk.
The major problem with the forward contracts are that the other party might refuse to oblige the contract if the situation moves against them. So to avoid that from happening future contract has margin in it. -
Question 62 of 999CB1000465
Question 62
FlagA company with floating rate debt has entered into a swap arrangement with a counterparty that has fixed rate debt. What are the implications to the company of a default by the counterparty?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Financial institution from whom the company has taken loan from does not car about whether the other party with which the company in question was in swap agreement has defaulted or not, so nothing would change on there part.
But for the company in question would still be obliged to pay floating rate debt.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Financial institution from whom the company has taken loan from does not car about whether the other party with which the company in question was in swap agreement has defaulted or not, so nothing would change on there part.
But for the company in question would still be obliged to pay floating rate debt. -
Question 63 of 999CB1000589
Question 63
FlagWhich of the following statements best describes the role of accounting standards in the preparation of financial statements for publication?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
The major aim of bringing accounting standards was to reduce variations in the way the accounts are prepared. Before the accounting standards came into business the comparison of accounting standards was not possible because different companies used to use different accounting concepts and approximations.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
The major aim of bringing accounting standards was to reduce variations in the way the accounts are prepared. Before the accounting standards came into business the comparison of accounting standards was not possible because different companies used to use different accounting concepts and approximations. -
Question 64 of 999CB1000590
Question 64
FlagWhich of the following accounting concepts provides justification for the fact that book values of certain assets may not always reflect their true value?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Since the company is a going concern it does not make sense to revalue the assets at the end of every year.
If the company would not have been a going concern then it would have made sense to check the realizable value of the assets.
And by ‘true value’ of the assets the question refers to ‘realizable value’ of the asset.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Since the company is a going concern it does not make sense to revalue the assets at the end of every year.
If the company would not have been a going concern then it would have made sense to check the realizable value of the assets.
And by ‘true value’ of the assets the question refers to ‘realizable value’ of the asset. -
Question 65 of 999CB1000592
Question 65
FlagA company’s external auditor included an emphasis of matter in the audit report. Which of the following statements best describes the meaning of an emphasis of matter?
Correct
The correct answer is A
Explanation:
As the comment suggests ’emphasis of matter’ literally means that auditor wants to emphasis on an important matter. If the accounts was not prepared accurately or represent the true and fair view of the company then the auditor would have given ‘disclaimer of opinion’ or ‘qualified opinion’.Incorrect
The correct answer is A
Explanation:
As the comment suggests ’emphasis of matter’ literally means that auditor wants to emphasis on an important matter. If the accounts was not prepared accurately or represent the true and fair view of the company then the auditor would have given ‘disclaimer of opinion’ or ‘qualified opinion’. -
Question 66 of 999CB1000593
Question 66
FlagWhich of the following is most likely to arise as a consequence of the money measurement concept?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
The consequence of money measurement concept is that some of events which are not measurable in money, like retiring of senior employee of a company would not be recorded in the financial statements.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
The consequence of money measurement concept is that some of events which are not measurable in money, like retiring of senior employee of a company would not be recorded in the financial statements. -
Question 67 of 999CB1000595
Question 67
FlagWhich of the following accounting concepts is breached when a company recognises a gain in the market value of its property?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
As per cost concept the value of the assets should be recorded as per the previous year value of the asset less the depreciation charged on the assets. If a gain in market value is recognized then that would not necessarily be equal to previous year value of the asset less the depreciation charged on the assets, therefore the cost concept is breached.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
As per cost concept the value of the assets should be recorded as per the previous year value of the asset less the depreciation charged on the assets. If a gain in market value is recognized then that would not necessarily be equal to previous year value of the asset less the depreciation charged on the assets, therefore the cost concept is breached. -
Question 68 of 999CB1000597
Question 68
FlagA company is preparing its financial statements and must decide on an accounting policy for an unusual situation that is not covered by accounting standards. Which of the following best explains how the company should proceed?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
In such situation the company should follow an approach which would ensure that integrity of financial statements continue to be there.
Going with Option A, B or C would not necessarily reveal the true and fair view of the financial statements.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
In such situation the company should follow an approach which would ensure that integrity of financial statements continue to be there.
Going with Option A, B or C would not necessarily reveal the true and fair view of the financial statements. -
Question 69 of 999CB1000598
Question 69
FlagWhich of the following best summarises the dual aspect concept?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Dual aspect concept means that every transaction affects two balances. This is because every transaction has debit and credit affect.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Dual aspect concept means that every transaction affects two balances. This is because every transaction has debit and credit affect. -
Question 70 of 999CB1000839
Question 70
FlagAn external auditor cannot conduct an adequate audit because the directors have withheld a significant amount of vital audit evidence. What form of external audit report would be appropriate in these circumstances?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Adverse opinion is given when everything in the accounts is correct except for a particular section for which the audit evidence was held back.
But if a significant amount of vital evidence was held back then auditors would be faced with an extreme form of uncertainty that they would be unable to give an evidence, so the appropriate comment would be disclaimer of opinion.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Adverse opinion is given when everything in the accounts is correct except for a particular section for which the audit evidence was held back.
But if a significant amount of vital evidence was held back then auditors would be faced with an extreme form of uncertainty that they would be unable to give an evidence, so the appropriate comment would be disclaimer of opinion. -
Question 71 of 999CB1000840
Question 71
FlagWho makes the final decision as to whether International Financial Reporting Standards are used as the basis for accounting in any given country?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
IASB cannot make the final decision as to whether an entire country should use IFRS or not, it would depend on the national Government of that country.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
IASB cannot make the final decision as to whether an entire country should use IFRS or not, it would depend on the national Government of that country. -
Question 72 of 999CB1000841
Question 72
FlagTo whom is the external auditor’s report normally addressed?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Auditors are hired by the shareholders so the audit reports are made for them.
Other stakeholders can make decision on the basis of audit report and they also do that but it was not addressed to them.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Auditors are hired by the shareholders so the audit reports are made for them.
Other stakeholders can make decision on the basis of audit report and they also do that but it was not addressed to them. -
Question 73 of 999CB1000842
Question 73
FlagWhich of the following best describes the need for the consistency concept in financial reporting?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Consistency concepts say that any approximation or method used by the company in the previous year should continued to be followed this year.
For example: If the company had used straight line method in the previous year they should continue using SLM method to depreciate the assets unless using written down value method provides a truer and fairer view of the financial statements.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Consistency concepts say that any approximation or method used by the company in the previous year should continued to be followed this year.
For example: If the company had used straight line method in the previous year they should continue using SLM method to depreciate the assets unless using written down value method provides a truer and fairer view of the financial statements. -
Question 74 of 999CB1000843
Question 74
FlagWhich group of users will be most interested in the fair value of a company’s non-current assets?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Lenders want to know what is the fair value of company’s non-current asset, as they are ones who are most interested in asset cover of the company. And the value of asset cover will not be accurate if the value of non-current assets of the company are not the fair value the assets.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Lenders want to know what is the fair value of company’s non-current asset, as they are ones who are most interested in asset cover of the company. And the value of asset cover will not be accurate if the value of non-current assets of the company are not the fair value the assets. -
Question 75 of 999CB1000844
Question 75
FlagWhich of the following best describes the role of International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) in the situations in which they are applicable?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Even after following IFRS there still can be inconsistency between the accounting choices, IFRS requires professional judgement to be applied and different accountants will have different judgement. And, inconsistent disclosures between the company can still be there. Even after following IFRS it is possible to make a misleading financial statement.
Therefore, Option D is correct.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Even after following IFRS there still can be inconsistency between the accounting choices, IFRS requires professional judgement to be applied and different accountants will have different judgement. And, inconsistent disclosures between the company can still be there. Even after following IFRS it is possible to make a misleading financial statement.
Therefore, Option D is correct. -
Question 76 of 999CB1000846
Question 76
FlagWhich of the following best explains what it means when the external auditor issues a disclaimer of opinion?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because in such case auditors would give adverse opinion.
Option B is incorrect because in such case auditor would given an unqualified opinion.
Option C is correct because disclaimer of opinion is given when auditor is faced with a lot of uncertainty and is unable to give a opinion.
Option D is incorrect because audit opinion is given along with the audit report, and if auditor wishes to withdraw the opinion that was previously given then they would have to issue a public notice.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because in such case auditors would give adverse opinion.
Option B is incorrect because in such case auditor would given an unqualified opinion.
Option C is correct because disclaimer of opinion is given when auditor is faced with a lot of uncertainty and is unable to give a opinion.
Option D is incorrect because audit opinion is given along with the audit report, and if auditor wishes to withdraw the opinion that was previously given then they would have to issue a public notice. -
Question 77 of 999CB1000859
Question 77
FlagA new International Financial Reporting Standard (IFRS) has come into effect, requiring companies to change an important accounting policy.
Which of the following best explains the implications of the concept of consistency in this case?Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because consistency principle states that if a change is required to be made which would better give the financial statement a true and fair then it should be done, and the effect of same should be given in the notes to accounts. It does not say to ignore all those things which would require a change in accounting concepts being applied.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because consistency principle states that if a change is required to be made which would better give the financial statement a true and fair then it should be done, and the effect of same should be given in the notes to accounts. It does not say to ignore all those things which would require a change in accounting concepts being applied. -
Question 78 of 999CB1000865
Question 78
FlagWhich of the following best explains the implications of the going concern concept in financial accounting?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Going concern concept states that business would continue indefinitely. Assets adjusted to its market value would mean that business is planning to close down and is going to realize the value of assets which would be inconsistent with going concern concept.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Going concern concept states that business would continue indefinitely. Assets adjusted to its market value would mean that business is planning to close down and is going to realize the value of assets which would be inconsistent with going concern concept. -
Question 79 of 999CB1000866
Question 79
FlagWho is responsible for the truth and fairness of a company’s financial statements?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
External auditors have the responsibility to make sure that company’s financial statements that was presented by board of directors represent true and fair view of the company. Their job is not to prepare the financial statements.
Chief accountant would prepare the financial statements but the final approval of it to be shared with the world would be done by the board of directors. So the prime responsibility of financial statements would still be the directors of the company.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
External auditors have the responsibility to make sure that company’s financial statements that was presented by board of directors represent true and fair view of the company. Their job is not to prepare the financial statements.
Chief accountant would prepare the financial statements but the final approval of it to be shared with the world would be done by the board of directors. So the prime responsibility of financial statements would still be the directors of the company. -
Question 80 of 999CB1000867
Question 80
FlagWhich of the following best describes the circumstances in which an emphasis of matter paragraph will be included in the external auditor’s report?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
For all the other options an adverse opinion or qualified opinion would be given.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
For all the other options an adverse opinion or qualified opinion would be given. -
Question 81 of 999CB1000868
Question 81
FlagWhich of the following is NOT a correct interpretation of the prudence concept?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Prudence concept says not to recognize such increase in market value of asset in books of accounts. Had the market price fallen then it should have been recognized in the books of account.
Option B is a correct interpretation of prudence concept as it is possible for the company to incur some cost at the time of the disposal of the asset, so that was recognized as well.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Prudence concept says not to recognize such increase in market value of asset in books of accounts. Had the market price fallen then it should have been recognized in the books of account.
Option B is a correct interpretation of prudence concept as it is possible for the company to incur some cost at the time of the disposal of the asset, so that was recognized as well. -
Question 82 of 999CB1000869
Question 82
FlagWhich of the following best reflects the significance of a company receiving an unmodified audit opinion?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
An unmodified audit opinion would mean that financial statements represent a true and fair view of the company, so it shows that financial statements can be relied upon for stewardship purpose.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
An unmodified audit opinion would mean that financial statements represent a true and fair view of the company, so it shows that financial statements can be relied upon for stewardship purpose. -
Question 83 of 999CB1000870
Question 83
FlagWhich of the following statements best explains the role of the external auditor from an agency perspective?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Role of external auditors is to certify whether the financial statements of the company represent a true and fair view of the company or not.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Role of external auditors is to certify whether the financial statements of the company represent a true and fair view of the company or not. -
Question 84 of 999CB1000871
Question 84
FlagWhich of the following statements is a valid interpretation of an unmodified external auditor’s report?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Role of external auditors is to certify whether the financial statements of the company represent a true and fair view of the company or not. So an unmodified audit opinion would mean that all the accounting standards have been applied as it should have been and there is no material breaches in that.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Role of external auditors is to certify whether the financial statements of the company represent a true and fair view of the company or not. So an unmodified audit opinion would mean that all the accounting standards have been applied as it should have been and there is no material breaches in that. -
Question 85 of 999CB1000872
Question 85
FlagWhich of the following best describes the responsibility of the external auditor? The external auditor:
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Role of external auditors is to certify whether the financial statements of the company represent a true and fair view of the company or not.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Role of external auditors is to certify whether the financial statements of the company represent a true and fair view of the company or not. -
Question 86 of 999CB1000873
Question 86
FlagWhy would the directors of a quoted company pay close attention to the company’s draft financial statements?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Financial statements are the report cards of directors, it shows to the shareholders how well the company is being managed by the directors that were appointed by them. If it is not being managed well then shareholders will remove the directors or would not re-appoint them. So directors pay a close attention to the financial statements.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Financial statements are the report cards of directors, it shows to the shareholders how well the company is being managed by the directors that were appointed by them. If it is not being managed well then shareholders will remove the directors or would not re-appoint them. So directors pay a close attention to the financial statements. -
Question 87 of 999CB1000874
Question 87
FlagA holiday company takes bookings for holidays up to a year before customers travel. The company recognises revenue from those bookings in the same accounting period as the costs associated with providing the holidays are incurred. Which accounting concept is the holiday company applying?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Matching concept says that revenue of a period should be matched with the expenses of that same period. So the revenue earned from those bookings should be recognized in the period in which cost is incurred for those bookings.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Matching concept says that revenue of a period should be matched with the expenses of that same period. So the revenue earned from those bookings should be recognized in the period in which cost is incurred for those bookings. -
Question 88 of 999CB1000877
Question 88
FlagA company purchased some inventory towards the end of the financial year which remained unsold at the year end. Which of the following statements describes the manner in which this will be reflected in the financial statements?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
The inventory has already been purchased so there has been a cash outflow for it. So it would affect the cashflow statement.
And there would be no impact on the financial statements unless some of the inventory has been damaged and the cost for the same would be incurred by the company. Then it should be written off as expense in the statement of profit and loss. But since no such thing is mentioned in the question there would be no impact on statement of profit and loss.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
The inventory has already been purchased so there has been a cash outflow for it. So it would affect the cashflow statement.
And there would be no impact on the financial statements unless some of the inventory has been damaged and the cost for the same would be incurred by the company. Then it should be written off as expense in the statement of profit and loss. But since no such thing is mentioned in the question there would be no impact on statement of profit and loss. -
Question 89 of 999CB1000878
Question 89
FlagWhich of the following statements relating to current assets is correct?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because it is not necessary that current assets would be realized within one year.
Option B is incorrect because does not necessarily have a short expected useful life, for example a company engaged in the business of furniture will have current assets which have a high useful life.
Option C is correct because cash and cash equivalents would be included as current assets and all those items which would expected to be converted to cash would be included in the current asset. Any item which is not expected to be realized as cash like office furniture would not be included here.
Option D is incorrect because it would not always have all those items.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because it is not necessary that current assets would be realized within one year.
Option B is incorrect because does not necessarily have a short expected useful life, for example a company engaged in the business of furniture will have current assets which have a high useful life.
Option C is correct because cash and cash equivalents would be included as current assets and all those items which would expected to be converted to cash would be included in the current asset. Any item which is not expected to be realized as cash like office furniture would not be included here.
Option D is incorrect because it would not always have all those items. -
Question 90 of 999CB1000879
Question 90
FlagAn actuary started a consultancy in 2005 by investing his life savings of £40,000 in the business and borrowing £20,000 from a bank. Since then, the consultancy has grown to the point where it owns an office worth £100,000 and equipment worth £7,000. Trade receivables in the form of work that has been invoiced but not yet paid for total £8,000. The business now has bank loans totalling £82,000 and owes £500 for unpaid bills. What is the value of the actuary’s equity?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Total assets that consultancy has right now = 100000 + 7000 + 8000 = £1,15,000
Total liabilities (excluding equity) that consultancy has right now = £82,500
Equity = £1,15,000-£82,500 = £32,500.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Total assets that consultancy has right now = 100000 + 7000 + 8000 = £1,15,000
Total liabilities (excluding equity) that consultancy has right now = £82,500
Equity = £1,15,000-£82,500 = £32,500. -
Question 91 of 999CB1000880
Question 91
FlagWhich of the following best describes the statement of changes in equity?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Option A is statement of profit and loss.
Option B is statement of financial position.
Option C is statement of change in equity.
Option D is cash flow statement.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Option A is statement of profit and loss.
Option B is statement of financial position.
Option C is statement of change in equity.
Option D is cash flow statement. -
Question 92 of 999CB1000881
Question 92
FlagWhat is the difference between profit and comprehensive income?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The definition of comprehensive income is profit + unrealized gains for the period.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The definition of comprehensive income is profit + unrealized gains for the period. -
Question 93 of 999CB1000882
Question 93
FlagA company’s trade receivables were £200,000 at the beginning of the year and £250,000 at the end. Cash sales were £900,000 and credit sales were £1 ,700,000. How much cash was collected from customers during the year?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Cash sales = £900,000
Collection from debtors = £200,000+£1,700,000-£250,000 = £1,650,000
Total collected from customers = £1,650,000 + £900,000 = £2,550,000Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Cash sales = £900,000
Collection from debtors = £200,000+£1,700,000-£250,000 = £1,650,000
Total collected from customers = £1,650,000 + £900,000 = £2,550,000 -
Question 94 of 999CB1000883
Question 94
FlagA business had assets at the beginning of the year worth £700,000 and liabilities worth £240,000. At the end of the year assets were worth £910,000 and liabilities were worth £260,000. The owners have not invested any equity and have received no dividend. What profit did the company make during the year?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Profit made during the year = Increase in Asset side – Increase in Liabilities side
Profit made during the year = £910,000-£700,000 – (£260,000-£240,000) = £190,000Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Profit made during the year = Increase in Asset side – Increase in Liabilities side
Profit made during the year = £910,000-£700,000 – (£260,000-£240,000) = £190,000 -
Question 95 of 999CB1000884
Question 95
FlagA typical cashflow statement adds depreciation back to operating profit in order to arrive at cash generated from operations. Which of the following explains the treatment of depreciation?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
The major reason why depreciation is added back to the operating profit is because it does not affect the cashflow of the company.
Whereas, the depreciation does affect the profit.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
The major reason why depreciation is added back to the operating profit is because it does not affect the cashflow of the company.
Whereas, the depreciation does affect the profit. -
Question 96 of 999CB1000904
Question 96
FlagAn item of equipment cost £5,000 and has an estimated useful life of ten years, at which time it is anticipated that it will be scrapped and sold for £200. The machine is now three years old. What is this machine’s book value if the company uses the straight-line method of depreciation?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Depreciation = (5000-200)/10 = £480.
Depreciation charged for three years = £1,440.
Machine’s book value of the company after three years = £5000 – £1,440 = £3,560Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Depreciation = (5000-200)/10 = £480.
Depreciation charged for three years = £1,440.
Machine’s book value of the company after three years = £5000 – £1,440 = £3,560 -
Question 97 of 999CB1000905
Question 97
FlagA building was purchased for £500,000 and has been depreciated by £20,000. It has recently been revalued at £700,000. What will be the balance on the revaluation reserve?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Value of building after depreciation = £500,000-£20,000 = £480,000
Balance on revaluation reserve = £700,000-£480,000 = £220,000
Revaluation has to be done after charging the depreciation.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Value of building after depreciation = £500,000-£20,000 = £480,000
Balance on revaluation reserve = £700,000-£480,000 = £220,000
Revaluation has to be done after charging the depreciation. -
Question 98 of 999CB1000908
Question 98
FlagWhich of the following best summarises the difference between straight line and reducing balance depreciation?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Total charge for both the assets will remain the same over the life of the asset.
WDV method leads to a higher charge in the initial years and lower charge in the later years.
SLM approach leads to a lower charge in the initial years and higher charge in the later years.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Total charge for both the assets will remain the same over the life of the asset.
WDV method leads to a higher charge in the initial years and lower charge in the later years.
SLM approach leads to a lower charge in the initial years and higher charge in the later years. -
Question 99 of 999CB1000913
Question 99
FlagA company owns a building that cost €800,000. Depreciation to date on the building is €200,000. The company’s directors have decided to revalue the building at its fair value of €950,000. What will be the balance on the company’s revaluation reserve?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Book value of building = €800,000 – €200,000 = €600,000.
Balance on revaluation reserve = €950,000-€600,000 = €350,000.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Book value of building = €800,000 – €200,000 = €600,000.
Balance on revaluation reserve = €950,000-€600,000 = €350,000. -
Question 100 of 999CB1000915
Question 100
FlagA company owns an item of equipment that cost £10,000 on 1 July 2010. The equipment’s estimated useful life was 10 years, at which time its estimated scrap value was £3,000. What is the depreciation charge on this equipment for the year ended 30 June 2018, assuming the straight line method of depreciation?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Depreciation charged on asset = (£10,000-£3,000)/10 = £700.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Depreciation charged on asset = (£10,000-£3,000)/10 = £700. -
Question 101 of 999CB1000917
Question 101
FlagWhich of the following statements best describes the purpose of the depreciation charge?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The purpose of depreciation is to reflect the consumption and wear-tear of asset that has taken place over the year.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The purpose of depreciation is to reflect the consumption and wear-tear of asset that has taken place over the year. -
Question 102 of 999CB1000919
Question 102
FlagA company owns property that cost $\${5.0}$ million and has been depreciated by $\${1.5}$ million. The property has recently been revalued at $\${8.1}$ million. What figure will appear in the revaluation reserve in respect of this asset?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Value of building after depreciation = $\${5.0}$ million – $\${1.5}$ million = $\${3.5}$ million
Balance in revaluation reserve = $\${8.1}$ million – $\${3.5}$ million = $\${4.6}$ millionIncorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Value of building after depreciation = $\${5.0}$ million – $\${1.5}$ million = $\${3.5}$ million
Balance in revaluation reserve = $\${8.1}$ million – $\${3.5}$ million = $\${4.6}$ million -
Question 103 of 999CB1000920
Question 103
FlagA company’s factory cost $\${50}$ million. Depreciation to date on the building is $\${12}$ million. The factory was recently valued at $\${55}$ million. What amount will appear in the company’s revaluation reserve in respect of this revaluation?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Value of company’s factory after depreciation = $\${50}$ million – $\${12}$ million = $\${38}$ million
Balance in revaluation reserve = $\${55}$ million – $\${38}$ million = $\${17}$ millionIncorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Value of company’s factory after depreciation = $\${50}$ million – $\${12}$ million = $\${38}$ million
Balance in revaluation reserve = $\${55}$ million – $\${38}$ million = $\${17}$ million -
Question 104 of 999CB1000928
Question 104
FlagWhich of the following best describes the parent company / subsidiary company relationship?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because it is not necessary for the parent company to wholly own the subsidiary company for it to be controlled by the parent company.
Option B is incorrect because it is not NECESSARY for a parent company to have a large ownership stake in subsidiary company to be a parent company, it can also have the rights to appoint/remove majority of directors of the company.
Option C is incorrect because subsidiary company is controlled by the parent company.
Option D is correct.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because it is not necessary for the parent company to wholly own the subsidiary company for it to be controlled by the parent company.
Option B is incorrect because it is not NECESSARY for a parent company to have a large ownership stake in subsidiary company to be a parent company, it can also have the rights to appoint/remove majority of directors of the company.
Option C is incorrect because subsidiary company is controlled by the parent company.
Option D is correct. -
Question 105 of 999CB1000930
Question 105
FlagA parent company owns a 30% holding in an associate. The associate’s profit for the year is £8m. The associate paid a dividend of £6m. How much income will appear in the parent’s consolidated statement of profit or loss ( or income statement) in respect of this associate?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
In case of associate-parent company relationship, 30% of profit/loss would appear in the parent’s consolidated Statement of profit or loss.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
In case of associate-parent company relationship, 30% of profit/loss would appear in the parent’s consolidated Statement of profit or loss. -
Question 106 of 999CB1000932
Question 106
FlagAn 80% controlling interest was acquired in a subsidiary company when it had equity shares with a book value of £800,000 in issue and retained earnings of £600,000. The book value of the subsidiary’s equity shares remains unchanged but retained earnings are now worth £900,000. What value should be attributed to the non-controlling interest in this subsidiary?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Non-controlling interest = (£800,000 + £900,000) $\times$ 0.2 = £340,000.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Non-controlling interest = (£800,000 + £900,000) $\times$ 0.2 = £340,000. -
Question 107 of 999CB1000939
Question 107
FlagChar1ie is a 100% subsidiary of the Corpo Group. Corpo is a major quoted corporation. Charlie has serious cash flow problems and is struggling to meet its immediate liabilities. Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
There is no legal obligation on parent company to help the subsidiary company, nor does it has any legal restrictions which stops it from helping subsidiary company.
Option A is incorrect because there is a reason for parent company to support its subsidiary company to protects its own reputation and goodwill in the market.
Since the impact of not supporting or supporting cannot be measured reliably so parent company will have to make a commercial decision as to whether it should support the subsidiary company or not.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
There is no legal obligation on parent company to help the subsidiary company, nor does it has any legal restrictions which stops it from helping subsidiary company.
Option A is incorrect because there is a reason for parent company to support its subsidiary company to protects its own reputation and goodwill in the market.
Since the impact of not supporting or supporting cannot be measured reliably so parent company will have to make a commercial decision as to whether it should support the subsidiary company or not. -
Question 108 of 999CB1000941
Question 108
FlagA parent company’s only asset is an £8 million investment in a 60% subsidiary. The subsidiary’s assets are valued at £25 million. What value will be attributed to group assets in the consolidated financial statements?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Parent’s company financial statement is prepared by cancelling all relationships between the group members and adding all assets and liabilities of the subsidiary company in this.
So group assets in the consolidated financial statements = £25 millionIncorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Parent’s company financial statement is prepared by cancelling all relationships between the group members and adding all assets and liabilities of the subsidiary company in this.
So group assets in the consolidated financial statements = £25 million -
Question 109 of 999CB1000944
Question 109
FlagWhich of the following best explains the fact that a consolidated statement of financial position does not show a figure in respect of non-controlling interest?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
The only case in which parent company will not show non-controlling interest in the consolidated financial statement is when there is no non-controlling interest. In all the other cases it has to show it.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
The only case in which parent company will not show non-controlling interest in the consolidated financial statement is when there is no non-controlling interest. In all the other cases it has to show it. -
Question 110 of 999CB1000947
Question 110
FlagAn insurance company’s financial statements show a conservatively high valuation of liabilities in respect of insured risks. Which of the following best explains this?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Preparation of financial statements of an insurance company is more complex than a normal company.
It is prudent to show a high valuation of liabilities in respect of insured risks.
All the other options are irrelevant and unrealistic.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Preparation of financial statements of an insurance company is more complex than a normal company.
It is prudent to show a high valuation of liabilities in respect of insured risks.
All the other options are irrelevant and unrealistic. -
Question 111 of 999CB1000950
Question 111
FlagJ is a quoted company that owns 5% of K, an unquoted company. J has contracts in place that gives it the right to be involved in any decisions made by K’s directors. J also has the right to replace K’s directors at any time. How should K be accounted for in the J Group’s consolidated financial statements?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
J has the right to remove K’s directors at any time which gives them a significant influence in the management of K.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
J has the right to remove K’s directors at any time which gives them a significant influence in the management of K. -
Question 112 of 999CB1000996
Question 112
FlagOver a particular period, a company’s profit before tax was £700,000. Share capital is £400,000 and retained earnings are £470,000. Long-term liabilities are £600,000. Interest on long-term liabilities was £48,000. What was the company’s return on capital employed for the period described above?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONOperating Profit = £700,000+£48,000 = £748,000
Capital Employed = £400,000 +£470,000+ £600,000= £1,470,000
ROCE = £748,000/£1,470,000 = 0.51Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONOperating Profit = £700,000+£48,000 = £748,000
Capital Employed = £400,000 +£470,000+ £600,000= £1,470,000
ROCE = £748,000/£1,470,000 = 0.51 -
Question 113 of 999CB1000998
Question 113
FlagWhich of the following best explains why investment analysts often calculate Earnings before Interest, Taxation, Depreciation and Amortisation (EBITDA)?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
EBITDA does not include depreciation or amortization in it, which is subject to manipulation.
EBITDA can fluctuate if the underlying earnings is fluctuating.
Depreciation and amortization are real costs to the business.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
EBITDA does not include depreciation or amortization in it, which is subject to manipulation.
EBITDA can fluctuate if the underlying earnings is fluctuating.
Depreciation and amortization are real costs to the business. -
Question 114 of 999CB1000999
Question 114
FlagNet asset value per share is calculated by subtracting intangible assets from ordinaty shareholders’ equity and dividing the remainder by the number of shares in issue. Which of the following best explains the relevance of net asset value per share?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Net asset value is the best possible outcome that the shareholder can expect to receive in the event the company is wound up.
There is no certainty that shareholders WILL receive net asset value at the time of winding up, this is because the value of assets in the financial statements might not be its realizable value.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Net asset value is the best possible outcome that the shareholder can expect to receive in the event the company is wound up.
There is no certainty that shareholders WILL receive net asset value at the time of winding up, this is because the value of assets in the financial statements might not be its realizable value. -
Question 115 of 999CB1001001
Question 115
FlagA company had cash sales of £60 million and credit sales of £150 million during its most recent financial year. The company had trade receivables of £40 million and £5 million of sundry receivables for rental income and similar balances at the year end. How long is the trade receivables turnover period?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Trade Receivables turnover period = Trade Receivables/Credit Sales $\times$ 365 = 40/150 $\times$ 365 = 97 days.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Trade Receivables turnover period = Trade Receivables/Credit Sales $\times$ 365 = 40/150 $\times$ 365 = 97 days. -
Question 116 of 999CB1001002
Question 116
FlagWhich of the following best summarises the relevance of the income (interest) cover ratio?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Lenders are more interested in the asset cover of the company rather than the interest cover, as whether the company is making profit or not the lenders would be paid.
Interest cover is calculated quarterly or annually so it does not provide the lenders with the short term risk associated with their investment.
Interest cover is important for shareholders, because if interest cover is low then that would mean that lenders are paid but out of the assets that was supposed to be used for generating returns for the business.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Lenders are more interested in the asset cover of the company rather than the interest cover, as whether the company is making profit or not the lenders would be paid.
Interest cover is calculated quarterly or annually so it does not provide the lenders with the short term risk associated with their investment.
Interest cover is important for shareholders, because if interest cover is low then that would mean that lenders are paid but out of the assets that was supposed to be used for generating returns for the business. -
Question 117 of 999CB1001005
Question 117
FlagWhich of the following best explains why companies must publish their diluted earnings per share?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Diluted EPS calculates EPS after converting all the issued convertibles into equity, so it does not reflect the intention of directors of issuing fresh equity.
Undiluted EPS is still relevant because not all convertibles are being converted right now or in the upcoming year or so.
Treatment of equity shares issued during the year is same for undiluted and diluted EPS.
Convertible debt-holders have the right to purchase shares at a preferential rate.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Diluted EPS calculates EPS after converting all the issued convertibles into equity, so it does not reflect the intention of directors of issuing fresh equity.
Undiluted EPS is still relevant because not all convertibles are being converted right now or in the upcoming year or so.
Treatment of equity shares issued during the year is same for undiluted and diluted EPS.
Convertible debt-holders have the right to purchase shares at a preferential rate. -
Question 118 of 999CB1001007
Question 118
FlagUse the following information to calculate return on capital employed.
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Capital employed = 110+300+22+90=522
ROCE = Profit before interest and tax/Capital Employed = 40/522 = 7.7%Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Capital employed = 110+300+22+90=522
ROCE = Profit before interest and tax/Capital Employed = 40/522 = 7.7% -
Question 119 of 999CB1001009
Question 119
FlagWhat is the most realistic interpretation of a low interest cover ratio in a highly cash generative business?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
If it is a cash generative business then they are not likely to default on its interest payments or on the loan.
Low interest cover means that operating profit is low which would suggest profit was low at the time interest cover was calculated.
If the business is cash generative then that would mean that they normally make profit but right now the profit is low, this suggests a fluctuating operating profit.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
If it is a cash generative business then they are not likely to default on its interest payments or on the loan.
Low interest cover means that operating profit is low which would suggest profit was low at the time interest cover was calculated.
If the business is cash generative then that would mean that they normally make profit but right now the profit is low, this suggests a fluctuating operating profit. -
Question 120 of 999CB1001034
Question 120
FlagWhich of the following is NOT a potentially correct interpretation of a high gross profit percentage?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
If the gross profit percentage is high then that would mean that sales are high but the purchase is low.
This would mean that entity has high selling prices or is overcharging its customers.
And, it can also be interpreted as that they have negotiated a low cost price.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
If the gross profit percentage is high then that would mean that sales are high but the purchase is low.
This would mean that entity has high selling prices or is overcharging its customers.
And, it can also be interpreted as that they have negotiated a low cost price. -
Question 121 of 999CB1001035
Question 121
FlagA company’s earnings before interest and tax is £400,000. It has one million £1 shares in issue, fully paid, and retained earnings of £800,000. Long term liabilities are £500,000. What is the entity’s return on capital employed?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Capital employed = £1,000,000+£800,000+£500,000 = £2,300,000
ROCE = Earnings/Capital Employed = £400,000/£2,300,000 = 17.4%Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Capital employed = £1,000,000+£800,000+£500,000 = £2,300,000
ROCE = Earnings/Capital Employed = £400,000/£2,300,000 = 17.4% -
Question 122 of 999CB1001037
Question 122
FlagHow will the components of the return on capital employed ratio be affected if a company charges depreciation too slowly?
Correct
The correct answer is B
EXPLANATIONDepreciation is an expense…
Expense is understated….
Returns would be overstated….
Return is a component of capital employed.
Therefore, capital employed would also be overstated.Incorrect
The correct answer is B
EXPLANATIONDepreciation is an expense…
Expense is understated….
Returns would be overstated….
Return is a component of capital employed.
Therefore, capital employed would also be overstated. -
Question 123 of 999CB1001039
Question 123
FlagWhy are preference shares normally treated as debt when calculating the gearing ratio?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Ordinary shareholders would only be paid dividends if the preference shareholders are paid dividends, so the payment to ordinary shareholders is affected by preference shareholders.
So preferences shareholders are debtors from the perspective of equity shareholders but they cannot actually be classified as debtors in the financial statements.
Option C is incorrect because it is not possible to suspend the payment of dividends to preference shareholders without suspending the payment of same to equity shareholders.
Option D is incorrect, although the statement is correct but it is not the correct reasoning for it to be treated as debt when calculating gearing ratio.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Ordinary shareholders would only be paid dividends if the preference shareholders are paid dividends, so the payment to ordinary shareholders is affected by preference shareholders.
So preferences shareholders are debtors from the perspective of equity shareholders but they cannot actually be classified as debtors in the financial statements.
Option C is incorrect because it is not possible to suspend the payment of dividends to preference shareholders without suspending the payment of same to equity shareholders.
Option D is incorrect, although the statement is correct but it is not the correct reasoning for it to be treated as debt when calculating gearing ratio. -
Question 124 of 999CB1001041
Question 124
FlagWhich of the following best explains why investment analysts often use earnings before interest, tax, depreciation and amortisation (EBITDA) as a performance measure?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
EBITDA does not include depreciation and amortization into calculation which can be calculated subjectively. So EBITDA is a objective measure of profit.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
EBITDA does not include depreciation and amortization into calculation which can be calculated subjectively. So EBITDA is a objective measure of profit. -
Question 125 of 999CB1001065
Question 125
FlagA company’s operating profit for the year was $\${20m}$, before allowing for interest. Share capital was $\${11m}$, share premium $\${7m}$, revaluation reserve $\${2m}$, retained earnings $\${6m}$, long term borrowings $\${8m}$ and trade payables $\${4m}$. Calculate the capital employed figure that would enable you to calculate the company’s return on capital employed ratio.
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Capital employed = Share Capital + Share premium + Revaluation reserve + retained earnings + long-term borrowings = $34m
Trade payables is not included in the calculation of trade payables because they are short term debt.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Capital employed = Share Capital + Share premium + Revaluation reserve + retained earnings + long-term borrowings = $34m
Trade payables is not included in the calculation of trade payables because they are short term debt. -
Question 126 of 999CB1001066
Question 126
FlagWhich of the following is most likely to occur when a company’s trade receivables turnover period, in days, has reduced?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Reduction in trade receivables turnover period means that there has been a reduction in trade receivables and that debtors are being settled early.
This suggests that there must be a increase in cash.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Reduction in trade receivables turnover period means that there has been a reduction in trade receivables and that debtors are being settled early.
This suggests that there must be a increase in cash. -
Question 127 of 999CB1001067
Question 127
FlagA company’s diluted earnings per share is significantly lower than its basic earnings per share. How should that be interpreted?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
The only difference between basic EPS and diluted EPS is that latter takes share warrants and convertibles into consideration, all the other elements are same.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
The only difference between basic EPS and diluted EPS is that latter takes share warrants and convertibles into consideration, all the other elements are same. -
Question 128 of 999CB1001068
Question 128
FlagA company has a low profit margin but a high return on capital employed when compared to its main competitors. Which of the following interpretations is most likely to explain this combination?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
A low profit margin and high ROCE means that company is selling at a price which is optimal, if they were selling at a very low price then ROCE would also have been low.
Since the company is selling at a optimal price they are probably able to sell more than their competitors which would explain the high ROCE.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
A low profit margin and high ROCE means that company is selling at a price which is optimal, if they were selling at a very low price then ROCE would also have been low.
Since the company is selling at a optimal price they are probably able to sell more than their competitors which would explain the high ROCE. -
Question 129 of 999CB1001069
Question 129
FlagA company’s operating profit is €2 million. Its finance charges were €0.5 million. Shareholder equity is €20 million and long term borrowings are €6 million. What is the company’s return on capital employed?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Earnings before interest and tax is represented by operating profit.
So,
Return on capital employed = 2/(20+6) = 7.7%Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Earnings before interest and tax is represented by operating profit.
So,
Return on capital employed = 2/(20+6) = 7.7% -
Question 130 of 999CB1001070
Question 130
FlagOne of a firm’s major customers buys large quantities of goods on trade credit. The customer’s payments have started to become erratic and are often slightly overdue. Which of the following would be the most appropriate response of the firm to this behaviour?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
The most appropriate response commercially for the company would be to reduce the future credit sales while the customer has long overdue balances.
For any other option the company will ruin the commercial relationship with its customers.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
The most appropriate response commercially for the company would be to reduce the future credit sales while the customer has long overdue balances.
For any other option the company will ruin the commercial relationship with its customers. -
Question 131 of 999CB1001071
Question 131
FlagWhich of the following is the most realistic interpretation of a company having a low asset utilisation ratio and a high profit margin?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
High profit margin suggests that selling price of the company is either optimal or high.
But if the selling prices were optimal then the asset utilization ratio would also have been optimal. So this suggests that selling price is high because of which sales of the company are low so the asset utilization ratio is low.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
High profit margin suggests that selling price of the company is either optimal or high.
But if the selling prices were optimal then the asset utilization ratio would also have been optimal. So this suggests that selling price is high because of which sales of the company are low so the asset utilization ratio is low. -
Question 132 of 999CB1001072
Question 132
FlagWhich of the following best explains why intangible assets are excluded from the calculation of asset cover?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Intangible assets like goodwill of the company or brand value of the company would be difficult to realize at the time of its liquidation.
And it is not the case that intangibles assets are completely worthless at the time of liquidation of the company, they are some assets like patented software or copyright or trademark which would have some realizable value at the end but they would be difficult to realize.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Intangible assets like goodwill of the company or brand value of the company would be difficult to realize at the time of its liquidation.
And it is not the case that intangibles assets are completely worthless at the time of liquidation of the company, they are some assets like patented software or copyright or trademark which would have some realizable value at the end but they would be difficult to realize. -
Question 133 of 999CB1001073
Question 133
FlagWhich of the following best describes the difference between basic and diluted earnings per share (EPS)?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
The major difference with the basic EPS and diluted EPS is that latter takes adds share warrants and those instrument which grants the right to buy the share at preferential rate as equity shares.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
The major difference with the basic EPS and diluted EPS is that latter takes adds share warrants and those instrument which grants the right to buy the share at preferential rate as equity shares. -
Question 134 of 999CB1001074
Question 134
FlagA manufacturing company has an operating profit of £30.0 million. Finance charges were £1.6 million and tax was £2.5 million. The company’s share capital was £80 million, retained earnings were £140 million and long-term debt was £20 million. Calculate the company’s return on capital employed.
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Earnings before interest and tax is represented by operating profit.
Capital employed = 80+140+20 = £240 million
ROCE = 30/240 = 12.5%Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Earnings before interest and tax is represented by operating profit.
Capital employed = 80+140+20 = £240 million
ROCE = 30/240 = 12.5% -
Question 135 of 999CB1001075
Question 135
FlagA company makes sales on credit of $100,000 every month. Trade receivables generally take 50 days to pay. What would be the impact on cash of changing the terms of trade so that receivables were settled after 40 days?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
There will not be an immediate increase in cash balance because of the change in policy.
It will also not take as long as 50 days to reflect the change in policy.
The change in bank balance would be reflected over the coming 40 days.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
There will not be an immediate increase in cash balance because of the change in policy.
It will also not take as long as 50 days to reflect the change in policy.
The change in bank balance would be reflected over the coming 40 days. -
Question 136 of 999CB1001076
Question 136
FlagWhy might a manufacturing company’s return on capital employed be overstated during times of inflation?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
In the event of inflation every thing else would increase but the depreciation and amortization. So this would be considered as being understated.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
In the event of inflation every thing else would increase but the depreciation and amortization. So this would be considered as being understated. -
Question 137 of 999CB1001077
Question 137
FlagA wholesaling company has ‘prebooked’ sales by recording revenues that will not be earned until the first month of the following financial year. Which of the following statements best describes the impact that this will have on the analysis of the company’s financial statements for this year?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
If the revenue was ‘prebooked’ then the company has already passed the sales entry.
So revenue would be overstated whereas inventory would be understated.
Profit would be overstated but cash would not be overstated since we have not been given whether the cash was collected from debtors or not.
Return on capital employed would also be affected because of this as the profit is affected by this, ROCE has operating profit in it so it is not possible for it to not be affected.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
If the revenue was ‘prebooked’ then the company has already passed the sales entry.
So revenue would be overstated whereas inventory would be understated.
Profit would be overstated but cash would not be overstated since we have not been given whether the cash was collected from debtors or not.
Return on capital employed would also be affected because of this as the profit is affected by this, ROCE has operating profit in it so it is not possible for it to not be affected. -
Question 138 of 999CB1001078
Question 138
FlagYou are reviewing the financial statements of several major retailers. One company has a relatively high asset utilisation ratio and a relatively low profit margin. How should this be interpreted?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
We are given that asset utilisation ratio is high and profit margin is low, so we cannot determinate the impact on return on capital employed so Option A and B are incorrect.
If the prices set by the company were high then the profit margin would also have been high, Option C is incorrect.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
We are given that asset utilisation ratio is high and profit margin is low, so we cannot determinate the impact on return on capital employed so Option A and B are incorrect.
If the prices set by the company were high then the profit margin would also have been high, Option C is incorrect. -
Question 139 of 999CB1001079
Question 139
FlagWhy do analysts disregard intangible assets when calculating net asset value per share?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
In case of winding up of the company it becomes difficult to realize the intangible assets, hence it is disregarded from the calculation of net asset value per share.
They are not completely worthless.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
In case of winding up of the company it becomes difficult to realize the intangible assets, hence it is disregarded from the calculation of net asset value per share.
They are not completely worthless. -
Question 140 of 999CB1001080
Question 140
FlagWhich of the following is a valid formula for Return on Capital Employed (ROCE)?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
ROCE = Operating Profit/Capital Employed = EBIT/(Share capital + Reserves + Long-term debt)
Reserves and long-term debt have to be included in the calculation of capital employed.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
ROCE = Operating Profit/Capital Employed = EBIT/(Share capital + Reserves + Long-term debt)
Reserves and long-term debt have to be included in the calculation of capital employed. -
Question 141 of 999CB1001439
Question 141
FlagWhich of the following does NOT explain why historical cost accounting overstates profit during times of inflation?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
At the times of inflation the monetary value of interest paid will not change but the real value of the same would fall. So the profits would be overstated.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
At the times of inflation the monetary value of interest paid will not change but the real value of the same would fall. So the profits would be overstated. -
Question 142 of 999CB1001440
Question 142
FlagA manufacturing company has consistently used historical cost accounting since its incorporation. Which of the following best describes the implications of basing the return on capital employed ratio (return) on historical cost figures?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
If the accounting is based on historical cost basis then the profit would be overstated, so the return would be overstated.
One of the reasons for this is that nominal value of interest that the company is supposed to pay would remain the same whereas the real value of the same would fall.
But the return on capital employed ratio takes EBITDA for the calculation so it would be understated.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
If the accounting is based on historical cost basis then the profit would be overstated, so the return would be overstated.
One of the reasons for this is that nominal value of interest that the company is supposed to pay would remain the same whereas the real value of the same would fall.
But the return on capital employed ratio takes EBITDA for the calculation so it would be understated. -
Question 143 of 999CB1001441
Question 143
FlagWhich of the following best explains why liquidity ratios based on a company’s published accounts are unlikely to be useful for credit control purposes?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The financial statements are usually published months after the year has already ended.
Whereas the figures of inventory and cash change on a rapid basis, so the liquidity ratio calculated from published books of accounts are not going to be reliable.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The financial statements are usually published months after the year has already ended.
Whereas the figures of inventory and cash change on a rapid basis, so the liquidity ratio calculated from published books of accounts are not going to be reliable. -
Question 144 of 999CB1001442
Question 144
FlagA company has identified a loophole in accounting standards that will enable it to overstate its reported profit, although this will be apparent from a close reading of the notes to the financial statements. Which of the following is the most likely result of using this loophole?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
The share price of the company would definitely not increase because of this as shareholders are not aware of such loophole.
So the share price would remain unaffected.
Because of use of this loophole the earnings of the company would increase.
Hence, the Price/Earnings ratio would fall.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
The share price of the company would definitely not increase because of this as shareholders are not aware of such loophole.
So the share price would remain unaffected.
Because of use of this loophole the earnings of the company would increase.
Hence, the Price/Earnings ratio would fall. -
Question 145 of 999CB1001443
Question 145
FlagA manufacturing company’s financial statements are based on historical cost accounting. Which of the following best explains the problems associated with interpreting the company’s financial statements during periods of inflation?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
At the time of inflation, depreciation would obviously be understated because it was calculated on the basis of asset price which was purchased before the inflation was there.
Cost of inventory consumed would also be understated because it was also purchased before the inflation was there. Unless the company is following LIFO method of inventory then the value of inventory would reflect the current prices.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
At the time of inflation, depreciation would obviously be understated because it was calculated on the basis of asset price which was purchased before the inflation was there.
Cost of inventory consumed would also be understated because it was also purchased before the inflation was there. Unless the company is following LIFO method of inventory then the value of inventory would reflect the current prices. -
Question 146 of 999CB1001446
Question 146
FlagWhich of the following statements best distinguishes a budget from a forecast?
A budget:Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Forecast is just a projection of expenses and income of the company in the future there is no planning involved there.
Budget involves forecasting and planning.
Both budget and forecasting requires an understanding of the entity.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Forecast is just a projection of expenses and income of the company in the future there is no planning involved there.
Budget involves forecasting and planning.
Both budget and forecasting requires an understanding of the entity. -
Question 147 of 999CB1001447
Question 147
FlagWhich of the following best supports the assertion that the payment of a dividend signals confidence on the part of the directors?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Payment of dividends are a sign that company is not only just making profit but is also generating cash, which is a sign of confidence on the part of the directors. And, directors of the company believes that even after paying dividends they would have sufficient amount of cash leftover for sufficient growth and expansion.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Payment of dividends are a sign that company is not only just making profit but is also generating cash, which is a sign of confidence on the part of the directors. And, directors of the company believes that even after paying dividends they would have sufficient amount of cash leftover for sufficient growth and expansion. -
Question 148 of 999CB1001448
Question 148
FlagWhy might a share buyback increase a company’s share price?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
If company has excess cash leftover and they are not able to find projects that give sufficient returns it is recommended to buyback the shares.
Thus buyback shows that company at the moment is not finding any worthy projects to invest the money in.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
If company has excess cash leftover and they are not able to find projects that give sufficient returns it is recommended to buyback the shares.
Thus buyback shows that company at the moment is not finding any worthy projects to invest the money in. -
Question 149 of 999CB1001449
Question 149
FlagAn investor holds a broad portfolio of investments. Which of the following is a systematic risk which may affect the value of her portfolio?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Having a broad portfolio of investments mean that investor’s portfolio would not get affected by a lot because of one single company’s performance.
An change in interest rates however would affect all the companies, so this is a systematic risk that would affect the value of her portfolio.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Having a broad portfolio of investments mean that investor’s portfolio would not get affected by a lot because of one single company’s performance.
An change in interest rates however would affect all the companies, so this is a systematic risk that would affect the value of her portfolio. -
Question 150 of 999CB1001450
Question 150
FlagWhich of the following best describes the cost of providing finance from retained earnings?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Retained earnings belong to share-holders so the cost of retained earnings is same as cost of share-holders.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Retained earnings belong to share-holders so the cost of retained earnings is same as cost of share-holders. -
Question 151 of 999CB1001451
Question 151
FlagWhich of the following is an unsystematic (specific) risk?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A, C and D would affect all the companies in the economy whereas option B will only affect a particular company so this will come under specific risk.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A, C and D would affect all the companies in the economy whereas option B will only affect a particular company so this will come under specific risk. -
Question 152 of 999CB1001452
Question 152
FlagA quoted company’s statement of financial position shows equity shares worth £10m, retained earnings of £20m and non-current liabilities in the form of a £15m nominal loan paying 7% pa interest. The shares have a total market value of £48m and the non-current liabilities have a market value of £ 18m. The company’s cost of equity has been determined as 17% and the cost of debt as 8%. What is the company’s weighted average cost of capital?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
WACC = 0.17 $\times$ 48/(48+18) + 0.08 $\times$ 18/(48+18) = 14.55%Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
WACC = 0.17 $\times$ 48/(48+18) + 0.08 $\times$ 18/(48+18) = 14.55% -
Question 153 of 999CB1001453
Question 153
FlagA speculator has a policy of investing all of his cash in a single company for a short period in the hope of achieving a capital gain. The speculator is presently looking for a company whose shares have a high beta coefficient. Which of the following is the most rational explanation for the speculator’s desire to identify a high beta security?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Speculator has invested all his cash in a single company, so they are expecting the share prices of the company to increase.
They also want the shares of the company to have a high beta coefficient.
And, a share with high beta coefficient will move in the way in which market will move.
So the investor is expecting the market to strengthen.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Speculator has invested all his cash in a single company, so they are expecting the share prices of the company to increase.
They also want the shares of the company to have a high beta coefficient.
And, a share with high beta coefficient will move in the way in which market will move.
So the investor is expecting the market to strengthen. -
Question 154 of 999CB1001454
Question 154
FlagAn investment project is to be evaluated on the basis of a real rate of return. What does that mean for the evaluation of the project?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
If the project is evaluated on the basis of real rate of return then inflation has already been accounted for.
If all the possible projects has been evaluated on the basis of real rate of return then there is no reason for the project in question to be favored or not favored.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
If the project is evaluated on the basis of real rate of return then inflation has already been accounted for.
If all the possible projects has been evaluated on the basis of real rate of return then there is no reason for the project in question to be favored or not favored. -
Question 155 of 999CB1001455
Question 155
FlagA company’s share price has a beta of close to zero. How should that be interpreted?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Beta is 0 would imply that share price of the company is not affected by the movements in the market, for example utility service providing companies like electricity, water supplying company. It does not matter whether the market is bullish or bearish their share price would remain unaffected because the business would remain unaffected.
Option C is incorrect because there are many investors who are willing to invest in such companies.
Option D is incorrect because specific risk would still be there for this company.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Beta is 0 would imply that share price of the company is not affected by the movements in the market, for example utility service providing companies like electricity, water supplying company. It does not matter whether the market is bullish or bearish their share price would remain unaffected because the business would remain unaffected.
Option C is incorrect because there are many investors who are willing to invest in such companies.
Option D is incorrect because specific risk would still be there for this company. -
Question 156 of 999CB1001456
Question 156
FlagA company’s beta coefficient is 1.6 and it has a 30% gearing ratio. How would beta change if the corporation tax rate increased?
Correct
The correct answer is B
Explanation:
Geared beta = Ungeared beta $\times$ (1+debt:equity ratio $\times$ (1-tax rate))
Now, if tax rate increases (1-tax rate) would fall which would lead to a fall in debt:equity ratio $\times$ (1-tax rate) which would then lead to a fall in geared beta.Incorrect
The correct answer is B
Explanation:
Geared beta = Ungeared beta $\times$ (1+debt:equity ratio $\times$ (1-tax rate))
Now, if tax rate increases (1-tax rate) would fall which would lead to a fall in debt:equity ratio $\times$ (1-tax rate) which would then lead to a fall in geared beta. -
Question 157 of 999CB1001457
Question 157
FlagA company has bonds in issue, repayable in seven years, with a nominal value of $100m and a coupon rate of 8% pa. The company’s credit rating has been downgraded. Which of the following statements best reflects the implications of the revised credit rating for the company’s cost of debt?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Degradation of credit rating will definitely cause a fall in the market value of bonds, as the sale-ability of the bonds would fall now.
Plus, now that the credit rating of the company has fallen company would have to offer a higher interest rate to borrow funds, so the cost of debt for the company has increased.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Degradation of credit rating will definitely cause a fall in the market value of bonds, as the sale-ability of the bonds would fall now.
Plus, now that the credit rating of the company has fallen company would have to offer a higher interest rate to borrow funds, so the cost of debt for the company has increased. -
Question 158 of 999CB1001459
Question 158
FlagAn investor cannot afford to construct a properly diversified portfolio. Which of the following best describes the significance of the beta of potential investments to that investor?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Obviously the aim of the investor would be to maximize the returns that she is getting.
So the best solution for her would be to invest in a security which has a high beta coefficient, such security’s return will increase if the market goes bullish.
Question does not say that investor is risk-averse.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Obviously the aim of the investor would be to maximize the returns that she is getting.
So the best solution for her would be to invest in a security which has a high beta coefficient, such security’s return will increase if the market goes bullish.
Question does not say that investor is risk-averse. -
Question 159 of 999CB1001461
Question 159
FlagWhich of the following is a valid basis for weighting debt and equity in order to calculate the weighted average cost of capital (WACC)?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
For the calculation of weighted average cost of capital we use market value of debt and market value of equity.
It is obvious that the value used should be consistent between equity and debt.
But, we should not use book value of debt and book value of equity because it is less relevant than the market value of the same.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
For the calculation of weighted average cost of capital we use market value of debt and market value of equity.
It is obvious that the value used should be consistent between equity and debt.
But, we should not use book value of debt and book value of equity because it is less relevant than the market value of the same. -
Question 160 of 999CB1001464
Question 160
FlagA quoted company made a significant bond issue. Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
After a significant bond issue the company’s return’s dependence on interest rate prevailing in the market would increase, so the beta coefficient of the company would increase.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
After a significant bond issue the company’s return’s dependence on interest rate prevailing in the market would increase, so the beta coefficient of the company would increase. -
Question 161 of 999CB1001466
Question 161
FlagHow should an investor evaluate a security that has a beta value of zero?
Correct
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
A zero-beta portfolio would mean that return from such portfolio would not be affected because of the fluctuations in the market.
Such portfolio would still carry specific risk so it is not entirely risk-free.Incorrect
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
A zero-beta portfolio would mean that return from such portfolio would not be affected because of the fluctuations in the market.
Such portfolio would still carry specific risk so it is not entirely risk-free. -
Question 162 of 999CB1001468
Question 162
FlagWhat is implied by a beta of zero on a potential investment?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
A zero-beta portfolio would mean that return from such portfolio would not be affected because of the fluctuations in the market.
Such portfolio would still carry specific risk so it is not entirely risk-free.
Such portfolio would not necessarily have high risk.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
A zero-beta portfolio would mean that return from such portfolio would not be affected because of the fluctuations in the market.
Such portfolio would still carry specific risk so it is not entirely risk-free.
Such portfolio would not necessarily have high risk. -
Question 163 of 999CB1001470
Question 163
FlagIn times of inflation:
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
From the choices we get that we want to understand the impact of inflation on the required rate of return and not on the rate of return received from the project.
Real rates of return required from the project would have removed the impact of inflation from the cashflows so it would not be impacted.
Nominal rates of return on the other hand would be increased from all those projects which give cash receipts in the later years to incorporate the fact that the real value of cashflows would fall because of inflation.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
From the choices we get that we want to understand the impact of inflation on the required rate of return and not on the rate of return received from the project.
Real rates of return required from the project would have removed the impact of inflation from the cashflows so it would not be impacted.
Nominal rates of return on the other hand would be increased from all those projects which give cash receipts in the later years to incorporate the fact that the real value of cashflows would fall because of inflation. -
Question 164 of 999CB1001579
Question 164
FlagWhich of the following best describes the effects of an increase in the risk characteristics of a project when evaluating its net present value?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Riskiness of the cashflow can be factored into the calculation of Net present value.
To reflect the risky nature of the cashflow a higher discount rate is used.
Using a higher discount rate would mean lower Net present value.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Riskiness of the cashflow can be factored into the calculation of Net present value.
To reflect the risky nature of the cashflow a higher discount rate is used.
Using a higher discount rate would mean lower Net present value. -
Question 165 of 999CB1001580
Question 165
FlagThe payback method of evaluating a project can lead to the wrong decision being made because:
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
The major drawback of payback period method is that it ignores cashflows beyond the payback period which might significantly influence the decision made with regards to the project chosen.
Option D is incorrect because payback period is generally used for those projects which has shorter cashflow period, a small enough period for which interest rate can be ignored.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
The major drawback of payback period method is that it ignores cashflows beyond the payback period which might significantly influence the decision made with regards to the project chosen.
Option D is incorrect because payback period is generally used for those projects which has shorter cashflow period, a small enough period for which interest rate can be ignored. -
Question 166 of 999CB1001581
Question 166
FlagThe net present value criterion is generally claimed to provide the most consistent and relevant basis for the selection of investment projects. Which of the following situations creates the greatest threat to the validity of evaluating projects using net present value in practice?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
NPV calculation is highly dependent on the timing of the cashflow, the amount of cashflow and the assumptions made by the model.
It is possible for a manager to inflate the cashflows from the project or downplay the costs to make the project favorable.
It is also possible for the manager to make absurd assumptions that would the project favorable.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
NPV calculation is highly dependent on the timing of the cashflow, the amount of cashflow and the assumptions made by the model.
It is possible for a manager to inflate the cashflows from the project or downplay the costs to make the project favorable.
It is also possible for the manager to make absurd assumptions that would the project favorable. -
Question 167 of 999CB1001582
Question 167
FlagA company manufactures car engines and buys in a large number of components from other companies. The company has a choice between two investment projects. It can build a small factory that will manufacture the most expensive components that it currently buys in from third parties. The savings on those components will be very substantial. Alternatively, it can build a large factory that will manufacture all of the components that it currently buys in. There will be a saving on all components manufactured, but the amount saved on the less expensive items will be much smaller. Each investment is equally risky. Which of the following is the most likely when the internal rate of return and net present value from the two projects are compared?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Since the saving that the company would make from smaller factory is a lot, so the IRR for the smaller company would be high.
IRR from the big factory would be low because return from all the other equipments that the factory will manufacture would be low so overall return would be brought down.
For the small factory, a large saving would be made.
For the big factory, above saving plus some small savings would be made.
So this would contribute something to the NPV, although not a lot.
So the NPV of big factory would be more than the small factory.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Since the saving that the company would make from smaller factory is a lot, so the IRR for the smaller company would be high.
IRR from the big factory would be low because return from all the other equipments that the factory will manufacture would be low so overall return would be brought down.
For the small factory, a large saving would be made.
For the big factory, above saving plus some small savings would be made.
So this would contribute something to the NPV, although not a lot.
So the NPV of big factory would be more than the small factory. -
Question 168 of 999CB1001583
Question 168
FlagWhich of the following justifies the use of the payback method for evaluating capital investment projects?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Evaluating projects on the basis of payback period involves predicting cashflows would give the management a better insight into the project.
Option B is incorrect because it is not always necessary for the projects with short payback to be profitable.
Option C is incorrect because it is again not always necessary for the projects with short payback to have a higher NPV.
Option D is incorrect because it is again not always necessary for the projects with short payback to have predictable cashflows.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Evaluating projects on the basis of payback period involves predicting cashflows would give the management a better insight into the project.
Option B is incorrect because it is not always necessary for the projects with short payback to be profitable.
Option C is incorrect because it is again not always necessary for the projects with short payback to have a higher NPV.
Option D is incorrect because it is again not always necessary for the projects with short payback to have predictable cashflows. -
Question 169 of 999CB1001584
Question 169
FlagA company has a policy of investing in projects on the basis of their internal rate of return (IRR). Which of the following is a drawback of using IRR?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
IRR does not give an insight into the risk that the project carries, so ranking mutually exclusive projects would give us a misleading results.
IRR does not give an insight about the non-financial factors of the projects.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
IRR does not give an insight into the risk that the project carries, so ranking mutually exclusive projects would give us a misleading results.
IRR does not give an insight about the non-financial factors of the projects. -
Question 170 of 999CB1001585
Question 170
FlagWhich of the following best illustrates an opportunity cost?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Opportunity cost is the benefits foregone from the best alternative course of action to pursue a particular course of action.
In this case a project with positive NPV was foregone to invest the funds in some other project.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Opportunity cost is the benefits foregone from the best alternative course of action to pursue a particular course of action.
In this case a project with positive NPV was foregone to invest the funds in some other project. -
Question 171 of 999CB1001586
Question 171
FlagA project that has been under review for some time has been modified so that the cash receipts will remain the same, but their timing will be brought forward throughout the length of the project. How will this affect the project’s internal rate of return and net present value (using a positive risk discount rate)?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Bringing the cash receipts forward means that they would be discounted for lesser number of years, so the value of those cash receipts would have a higher contribution to the return.
So both NPV and internal rate of return.
This follows the economic concept that company would now receive higher satisfaction from this cash receipt.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Bringing the cash receipts forward means that they would be discounted for lesser number of years, so the value of those cash receipts would have a higher contribution to the return.
So both NPV and internal rate of return.
This follows the economic concept that company would now receive higher satisfaction from this cash receipt. -
Question 172 of 999CB1001587
Question 172
FlagA new machine will cost a company £700,000 and will increase profits by £180,000 per year. The machine will be depreciated over ten years. What is the payback period on this machine?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Depreciation charged on the machine = 700000/10 = 70,000 pounds.
Increase in profits = 180,000 pounds.
After three years:
Value of machine = 700000-70000 $\times$ 3 = 490,000
Profit generated from machine = 180000 $\times 3 = 540,000$
So, the payback period would be something less than 3 years, so 2 years and 10 months is the answer.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Depreciation charged on the machine = 700000/10 = 70,000 pounds.
Increase in profits = 180,000 pounds.
After three years:
Value of machine = 700000-70000 $\times$ 3 = 490,000
Profit generated from machine = 180000 $\times 3 = 540,000$
So, the payback period would be something less than 3 years, so 2 years and 10 months is the answer. -
Question 173 of 999CB1001589
Question 173
FlagA company has evaluated a large and complex investment proposal using Monte Carlo simulation. The simulation suggests that there is a 10% probability of a negative net present value, a 60% probability of a small positive net present value and a 30% probability of a substantial positive net present value. How should these results be interpreted?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because it is not possible for any number of simulations to cover all the possible scenarios, so the actual outcome can still lie outside the lower limit and upper limit that arise out of the simulation.
Option B is incorrect because a simple average of all the outcomes might not be how the project actually turn out. There is no surety in such complex projects.
Option C is partially correct, we should proceed with the project but not because there is 10% chance of loss but because expected NPV is positive.
Option D is correct because Monte Carlo simulation does provides a range of outcome and possible scenarios which give an indication of risk.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because it is not possible for any number of simulations to cover all the possible scenarios, so the actual outcome can still lie outside the lower limit and upper limit that arise out of the simulation.
Option B is incorrect because a simple average of all the outcomes might not be how the project actually turn out. There is no surety in such complex projects.
Option C is partially correct, we should proceed with the project but not because there is 10% chance of loss but because expected NPV is positive.
Option D is correct because Monte Carlo simulation does provides a range of outcome and possible scenarios which give an indication of risk. -
Question 174 of 999CB1001590
Question 174
FlagWhat is the most logical interpretation of a very small positive net present value determined for an investment proposal?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
NPV is calculated at the desired rate of return, so if NPV is positive (even if it is slightly positive) should be taken into consideration.
IRR would come as slightly more than required rate of return at which NPV is already calculated, so it would not provide any further information.
Option B is incorrect because it is not always necessary for projects with short payback periods to provide with desired rate of return.
Option D is incorrect because even a small positive NPV which was calculated at desired rate of return could be adding a lot to shareholders’ wealth so is worth considering.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
NPV is calculated at the desired rate of return, so if NPV is positive (even if it is slightly positive) should be taken into consideration.
IRR would come as slightly more than required rate of return at which NPV is already calculated, so it would not provide any further information.
Option B is incorrect because it is not always necessary for projects with short payback periods to provide with desired rate of return.
Option D is incorrect because even a small positive NPV which was calculated at desired rate of return could be adding a lot to shareholders’ wealth so is worth considering. -
Question 175 of 999CB1001591
Question 175
FlagRisk averse individuals often buy lottery tickets despite the fact that the expected value of doing so is negative. What does this reveal?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Generally the cost of lottery tickets are really cheap whereas the certainty equivalent, that is the amount which an individual would consider as equal to expected value of lottery would be higher. So the individual buy the lottery ticket.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Generally the cost of lottery tickets are really cheap whereas the certainty equivalent, that is the amount which an individual would consider as equal to expected value of lottery would be higher. So the individual buy the lottery ticket. -
Question 176 of 999CB1001592
Question 176
FlagThe net present value of a project has been graphed as follows:
Which of the following statements is correct?Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
IRR is the rate of return at which NPV is 0, since NPV touches 0 two times therefore this project has two IRRs.
This is not surprising because it is possible for some projects to have more than one IRRs.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
IRR is the rate of return at which NPV is 0, since NPV touches 0 two times therefore this project has two IRRs.
This is not surprising because it is possible for some projects to have more than one IRRs. -
Question 177 of 999CB1001593
Question 177
FlagA company often evaluates projects by means of the receipts/costs ratio:
$\frac{Net \,present \,value \,(NPV) \,of \,the \,gross \,revenues}{Net \,present \,value \,(NPV) \,of \,the \,capital \,and \,running \,costs}$
Which of the following best explains the usefulness of this ratio?Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
The company would want this ratio to be high, if this ratio is just shyly above 1 then that project is not worth taking.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
The company would want this ratio to be high, if this ratio is just shyly above 1 then that project is not worth taking. -
Question 178 of 999CB1001594
Question 178
FlagWhich of the following best explains what would happen if a quoted company’s directors accept a positive net present value (NPV) project that has a very high opportunity cost?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Shareholders do not always have the information of all the opportunities that a company has, so they would only be affected by it if they are informed of all the alternatives that the company has.
Option B is incorrect because shareholders’ wealth are affected by opportunity costs.
Shareholders will care if some other project had higher rate of return at the same level of risk or offered the same rate of return at lower risk, but the company missed out on opportunity. But this will only happen if shareholders had insights into the working of the company, which they do not.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Shareholders do not always have the information of all the opportunities that a company has, so they would only be affected by it if they are informed of all the alternatives that the company has.
Option B is incorrect because shareholders’ wealth are affected by opportunity costs.
Shareholders will care if some other project had higher rate of return at the same level of risk or offered the same rate of return at lower risk, but the company missed out on opportunity. But this will only happen if shareholders had insights into the working of the company, which they do not. -
Question 179 of 999CB1001595
Question 179
FlagA project has been evaluated at its required rate of return of 12% pa and has been found to have a net present value of zero. How should this finding be interpreted?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Internal rate of return is the return at which NPV is 0, therefore 12% is the IRR of the project.
Since the project has an IRR of 12% which is the desired rate of return it should be accepted.
Desired rate of return would obviously be set at a level which is more than the cost of capital, so this project will increase shareholders’ wealth.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Internal rate of return is the return at which NPV is 0, therefore 12% is the IRR of the project.
Since the project has an IRR of 12% which is the desired rate of return it should be accepted.
Desired rate of return would obviously be set at a level which is more than the cost of capital, so this project will increase shareholders’ wealth. -
Question 180 of 999CB1001596
Question 180
FlagAn investment project has been evaluated using Monte Carlo simulation. After running the simulation 2.5 million times, the results have stabilised and the expected net present value is positive and averages $\${1}$ million, with a range of outcomes varying from minus $\${200,000}$ to plus $\${1.8}$ million. Which of the following statements best interprets these results?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
The question says that we are getting a positive expected NPV so it definitely satisfies the NPV criterion.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
The question says that we are getting a positive expected NPV so it definitely satisfies the NPV criterion. -
Question 181 of 999CB1001597
Question 181
FlagWhich of the following statements provides the best explanation for why non-financial factors ought to be considered when evaluating an investment project?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because it is rather sometimes more difficult to evaluate non-financial factors.
Option B is correct because non-financial factors can give an insight into upside risk, because financial factors are always focused on downside risk. But taking upside risk into consideration is also important.
Option C is incorrect because not every shareholder will have non-financial factor as the primary driver of their wealth.
Option D is incorrect because it is irrelevant.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because it is rather sometimes more difficult to evaluate non-financial factors.
Option B is correct because non-financial factors can give an insight into upside risk, because financial factors are always focused on downside risk. But taking upside risk into consideration is also important.
Option C is incorrect because not every shareholder will have non-financial factor as the primary driver of their wealth.
Option D is incorrect because it is irrelevant. -
Question 182 of 999CB1001598
Question 182
FlagThe expected outcome of a project has been estimated using two approaches. The first approach was to predict the outcomes based on five sets of assumptions with given probabilities. The second approach was a Monte Carlo simulation that has been run many thousands of times. The results from both approaches are significantly different. Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Such prudence concept is not followed at the time of evaluation of project, generally that output is taken into consideration which is more logical.
Option B is correct because individual project appraisal approach is much more flexible.
Option C is incorrect because more sophistication does not equate to more reliability.
Option D is incorrect because every project will have some uncertainty to it but that would not mean that we should abandon all the projects.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Such prudence concept is not followed at the time of evaluation of project, generally that output is taken into consideration which is more logical.
Option B is correct because individual project appraisal approach is much more flexible.
Option C is incorrect because more sophistication does not equate to more reliability.
Option D is incorrect because every project will have some uncertainty to it but that would not mean that we should abandon all the projects. -
Question 183 of 999CB1001599
Question 183
FlagYou have been asked to determine the internal rate of return (IRR) of a project that has an initial cash outflow, followed by seven years of net cash inflows. The project’s net present value was +$\${500,000}$ when determined at 11% and -$\${500,000}$ when determined at 16%. Which of the following statements concerning the projects IRR is correct?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
IRR is obviously somewhere between 11% and 16%.
The IRR would not necessarily be equal to 13.5%, this is because we would not expect there to be a linear relationship between rate of return and NPV of the project.
And, if there isn’t any linear relationship then we cannot use linear interpolation here.
Even if you do not know linear interpolation even then it would be intuitive that IRR is not going to be exactly 13.5%.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
IRR is obviously somewhere between 11% and 16%.
The IRR would not necessarily be equal to 13.5%, this is because we would not expect there to be a linear relationship between rate of return and NPV of the project.
And, if there isn’t any linear relationship then we cannot use linear interpolation here.
Even if you do not know linear interpolation even then it would be intuitive that IRR is not going to be exactly 13.5%. -
Question 184 of 999CB1001600
Question 184
FlagAn actuary has prepared a computer model to simulate a complex project’s outcome. The model’s logic has been reviewed carefully. The following table shows the simulation results.
What should be concluded from these results?Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Since we are getting extremely different results with different number of runs, the only logical explanation would be to run the simulation many more times.
Obviously the result of average NPV that we got from 20000 runs is more accurate than the average NPV that we got from 10000 runs. But running the simulations more time would ensure higher accuracy.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Since we are getting extremely different results with different number of runs, the only logical explanation would be to run the simulation many more times.
Obviously the result of average NPV that we got from 20000 runs is more accurate than the average NPV that we got from 10000 runs. But running the simulations more time would ensure higher accuracy. -
Question 185 of 999CB1001601
Question 185
FlagA company has $10 million available for investment. It is considering investing in three individual investment projects.
What would be the opportunity cost of investing in Project One?Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
If company invests the money in project one then they will still have money left to invest in project two.
But, if the company invests the money in project one then there is no way to take project three after that.
So the opportunity cost of investing the money in project one is the NPV of project three that was sacrificed.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
If company invests the money in project one then they will still have money left to invest in project two.
But, if the company invests the money in project one then there is no way to take project three after that.
So the opportunity cost of investing the money in project one is the NPV of project three that was sacrificed. -
Question 186 of 999CB1001602
Question 186
FlagThe directors of a company are considering investing in a machine that will cost $\${38}$ million. The machine will have a useful life of 5 years. The cost of capital is 10% pa. The directors have determined that the annual capital charge of this machine is $\${10}$ million. The machine will generate revenues of $\${14}$ million and will require annual running costs of $\${1.5}$ million. Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Annual charge is calculated in the manner same as calculating depreciation. And is offset against the revenue that the company would be generating.
And, we can see from the above example that company should invest in the machine and it would also increase shareholders’ wealth.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Annual charge is calculated in the manner same as calculating depreciation. And is offset against the revenue that the company would be generating.
And, we can see from the above example that company should invest in the machine and it would also increase shareholders’ wealth. -
Question 187 of 999CB1001603
Question 187
FlagA project that is under consideration has a net present value of $\${100m}$. This evaluation takes no account of the very unlikely possibility that a natural disaster will cause significant disruption and leave the company exposed to serious losses. It is impossible to insure against this disaster. Which of the following is the most appropriate response to the threat posed by the disaster?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
It is not possible to calculate the probability of disaster because the question says it is “extremely unlikely” that disaster will be struck.
So calculating the expected value of cost of disaster or calculating an appropriate increase in discount rate would be not possible, so the most appropriate response would be to describe the risk in the appendix of the project evaluation.
Abandoning the project would not be an appropriate response because every project carry the risk of being completely disrupted because of natural factors.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
It is not possible to calculate the probability of disaster because the question says it is “extremely unlikely” that disaster will be struck.
So calculating the expected value of cost of disaster or calculating an appropriate increase in discount rate would be not possible, so the most appropriate response would be to describe the risk in the appendix of the project evaluation.
Abandoning the project would not be an appropriate response because every project carry the risk of being completely disrupted because of natural factors. -
Question 188 of 999CB1001604
Question 188
FlagA project that is under consideration has a net present value of $\${100m}$. This evaluation takes no account of the very unlikely possibility that a natural disaster will cause significant disruption and leave the company exposed to serious losses. It is impossible to insure against this disaster. Which of the following is the most appropriate response to the threat posed by the disaster?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because every project carries a risk of being disrupted because of an extremely unlikely scenario, the solution to that is to appropriately take measures against this and not to abandon the project.
Option C is incorrect because the question implies that it is not possible and feasible to calculate the probability of disaster being struck, so it would be difficult to determine how to calculate additional discount rate that should be used.
Option D is incorrect, again it is not possible to calculate the probability of the disaster which is “extremely unlikely”.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because every project carries a risk of being disrupted because of an extremely unlikely scenario, the solution to that is to appropriately take measures against this and not to abandon the project.
Option C is incorrect because the question implies that it is not possible and feasible to calculate the probability of disaster being struck, so it would be difficult to determine how to calculate additional discount rate that should be used.
Option D is incorrect, again it is not possible to calculate the probability of the disaster which is “extremely unlikely”. -
Question 189 of 999CB1001605
Question 189
FlagWhich of the following best describes a ‘certainty equivalent’ used in project appraisal?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Certainty equivalent is that value which firm would consider as equal to expected value of uncertain cashflows.
Many a times firm would rather go with a project which offers certain return than a project which offers higher uncertain returns.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Certainty equivalent is that value which firm would consider as equal to expected value of uncertain cashflows.
Many a times firm would rather go with a project which offers certain return than a project which offers higher uncertain returns. -
Question 190 of 999CB1001606
Question 190
FlagWhat is the strongest argument in favour of setting a common hurdle rate across a company for all projects?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because it is not necessary for all project in the same industry to have the same level of risk.
Option B is correct because it ensures consistency in evaluating all the projects that firm is undertaking or will undertake.
Option C is incorrect because use of common hurdle rate will not ensure consistency when capital rationing is in effect. This is because not all projects are undertaken by the firm because of the returns it provides to the firm but some are also taken on the basis of strategic compatibility of the firm, so using a common hurdle rate for them would be unfair to such projects and might get rejected.
Option D is incorrect because hurdle rate is a material factor in evaluating the projects.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because it is not necessary for all project in the same industry to have the same level of risk.
Option B is correct because it ensures consistency in evaluating all the projects that firm is undertaking or will undertake.
Option C is incorrect because use of common hurdle rate will not ensure consistency when capital rationing is in effect. This is because not all projects are undertaken by the firm because of the returns it provides to the firm but some are also taken on the basis of strategic compatibility of the firm, so using a common hurdle rate for them would be unfair to such projects and might get rejected.
Option D is incorrect because hurdle rate is a material factor in evaluating the projects. -
Question 191 of 999CB1001993
Question 191
FlagA company borrows Rs 1 crores for 6 months to meet its working capital requirement at 8% per annum for which it has to pay the interest in advance. It also has to pay a commitment fee of 0.25% on the amount borrowed. Annual financing cost of this arrangement is:
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The interest paid on the amount borrowed $=10000000 \times 0.08=800000$
The commitment fee $=10000000 \times 0.0025=25000$
Both of the above will have to be paid at the start.
So, accumulated value of these payments at the end of six-month period:
$=(800000+25000) \times 1.08^{0.5}$
$\approx R s .860000$
So, the annual financing cost of this arrangement is $8.6 \%$
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The interest paid on the amount borrowed $=10000000 \times 0.08=800000$
The commitment fee $=10000000 \times 0.0025=25000$
Both of the above will have to be paid at the start.
So, accumulated value of these payments at the end of six-month period:
$=(800000+25000) \times 1.08^{0.5}$
$\approx R s .860000$
So, the annual financing cost of this arrangement is $8.6 \%$
-
Question 192 of 999CB1001994
Question 192
FlagBeyond budgeting implies:
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
This is beyond budgeting as it is in this type of budgeting that management makes the branch offices compete with each other instead of making a budget for every branch.
Option A is zero-based budgeting.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
This is beyond budgeting as it is in this type of budgeting that management makes the branch offices compete with each other instead of making a budget for every branch.
Option A is zero-based budgeting. -
Question 193 of 999CB1001995
Question 193
FlagWhich of the following is not a problem with forecasting?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
There can be a major change in external environment/company specific issues can also be there in the future; which can create a problem with forecasting.
Option A is saying the opposite.
All the others are problem with forecasting.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
There can be a major change in external environment/company specific issues can also be there in the future; which can create a problem with forecasting.
Option A is saying the opposite.
All the others are problem with forecasting. -
Question 194 of 999CB1001997
Question 194
FlagPreference shares are generally considered as being more like debt than equity. Which of the following appropriately explains this?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONThere is no tax relief on the payment of dividends of preference shares, therefore treatment of preference shares dividend is same as that of equity.
One can make capital gain or losses on preference shares.
So, the above options make preference shares more like equity than debt.
Whereas like debt preference shares also have a fixed participation in profits.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONThere is no tax relief on the payment of dividends of preference shares, therefore treatment of preference shares dividend is same as that of equity.
One can make capital gain or losses on preference shares.
So, the above options make preference shares more like equity than debt.
Whereas like debt preference shares also have a fixed participation in profits. -
Question 195 of 999CB1001999
Question 195
FlagWhich of the following statements is NOT true about Internal Rate of Return (IRR) method of project appraisal
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
IRR is not the most reliable means of choosing between mutually exclusive projects, as IRR can lead to multiple solutions.
Also it does not take size of capital into consideration.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
IRR is not the most reliable means of choosing between mutually exclusive projects, as IRR can lead to multiple solutions.
Also it does not take size of capital into consideration. -
Question 196 of 999CB1002001
Question 196
FlagValue of Options increases with
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Higher volatility means that there is a higher chance of option moving in favor of option holders. So value of option increases with increase in volatility.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Higher volatility means that there is a higher chance of option moving in favor of option holders. So value of option increases with increase in volatility.
-
Question 197 of 999CB1002002
Question 197
FlagWhich of the following investors in the derivatives market may find that the contract (they have entered into) is a liability at expiry?
I. Buyer of a call option
II. Writer of a put option
III. Buyer of a put optionCorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Buyer of option has the right to not exercise the option.
Write of option does not have any right in this sense, if the option is exercised by buyer then writer will have to oblige this which makes this a liability at expiry.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Buyer of option has the right to not exercise the option.
Write of option does not have any right in this sense, if the option is exercised by buyer then writer will have to oblige this which makes this a liability at expiry. -
Question 198 of 999CB1002005
Question 198
FlagA Zero Coupon bond
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Bonds do earn interest but the payment for the same is not made at regular intervals.
A ZCB is issued at a discount and redeemed at par or face value of the bond.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Bonds do earn interest but the payment for the same is not made at regular intervals.
A ZCB is issued at a discount and redeemed at par or face value of the bond. -
Question 199 of 999CB1002006
Question 199
FlagWhich of the following statements with respect to IASB are correct?
I. IASB stands for International Accounting Standardization Board
II. IASB has no authority to require compliance with its accounting standards
III. While setting international accounting standards, IASB does not collaborate with national
accounting standard setters in different countries because it should operate truly
independently.Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONIASB stands for international Accounting Standards Board.
So, option A, C and D are incorrect.
While full forms are considered exact wordings can only be used.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONIASB stands for international Accounting Standards Board.
So, option A, C and D are incorrect.
While full forms are considered exact wordings can only be used. -
Question 200 of 999CB1002007
Question 200
FlagManagement of ABC Ltd. is considering change of method used for calculation of depreciation for a machine purchased last year, from Straight-line method to Reducing Balance method of depreciation.
The machine was purchased for INR 10,00,000 and was estimated to have a useful lifetime of 5 years with estimated residual value of INR 1,00,000 at the end of 5th year.
What is the impact on accounting profit of ABC Ltd. because of this change in the second year?Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONDepreciation under SLM method:
(10,00,000-1,00,000)/5 = 1,80,000
Depreciation rate under RBM method:
1,00,000 = 10,00,000 x (1-Depreciation Rate)^5
Solving this,
Depreciation rate = 37%.
Machinery was purchased last year and impact of change in depreciation method would be recorded prospectively only.
Under SLM method:
Depreciation = 1,80,000 (Irrespective of the year from purchase)
Under RBM Method:
Balance of Machinery at the end of 1st year = 10,00,000 x (1-0.37) = 6,30,000
Depreciation on Machinery in the end of 2nd year = 6,30,000 x 0.37 = 2,33,100
Loss due to change in Depreciation method = 2,33,100 – 1,80,000 = 53,100 (approx. 50,000)Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONDepreciation under SLM method:
(10,00,000-1,00,000)/5 = 1,80,000
Depreciation rate under RBM method:
1,00,000 = 10,00,000 x (1-Depreciation Rate)^5
Solving this,
Depreciation rate = 37%.
Machinery was purchased last year and impact of change in depreciation method would be recorded prospectively only.
Under SLM method:
Depreciation = 1,80,000 (Irrespective of the year from purchase)
Under RBM Method:
Balance of Machinery at the end of 1st year = 10,00,000 x (1-0.37) = 6,30,000
Depreciation on Machinery in the end of 2nd year = 6,30,000 x 0.37 = 2,33,100
Loss due to change in Depreciation method = 2,33,100 – 1,80,000 = 53,100 (approx. 50,000) -
Question 201 of 999CB1002008
Question 201
FlagA Ltd. has made investments in 3 companies:
$\bullet \quad$ It has 30% holding in X Ltd and right to appoint 3/10 directors
$\bullet \quad$ It has 55% holding in Y Ltd and right to appoint 4/10 directors
$\bullet \quad$ It has 10% holding in Z Ltd and right to appoint 6/10 directors
Which of the following are subsidiaries of A Ltd?Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONTo have a significant influence a company needs to have more than 50% holdings in another company and/or right to appoint majority of the directors of that company.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONTo have a significant influence a company needs to have more than 50% holdings in another company and/or right to appoint majority of the directors of that company.
-
Question 202 of 999CB1002009
Question 202
FlagThe following were calculated from financial statements of a manufacturing company:
Inventory Turnover Period – 10 days
Trade Receivable Turnover Period – 40 days
Trade Payable Turnover Period – 60 days
Which of the following is definitely NOT true?Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Company is making payments to creditors after 60 days whereas to debtors are 40 days.
Therefore, company is settling its creditors later than its debtors.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Company is making payments to creditors after 60 days whereas to debtors are 40 days.
Therefore, company is settling its creditors later than its debtors. -
Question 203 of 999CB1002010
Question 203
FlagInvestors might be willing to pay higher multiple of the earning per share of company as opposed
to another because:
I. They expect earnings to grow rapidly in future
II. They consider earnings on the stock to be less risky
Which of the statements is correct?Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONInvestors would be willing to pay higher multiple of earnings per share as price of the share if they believe that company is growing rapidly in the future. If they believed company to not be growing in the future then they would not be prepared to pay a price as a higher multiple of EPS.
Plus if they considered company to be risky then they would also expect the EPS to fluctuate a lot, so again they would not pay a price which is a higher multiple of current EPS.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONInvestors would be willing to pay higher multiple of earnings per share as price of the share if they believe that company is growing rapidly in the future. If they believed company to not be growing in the future then they would not be prepared to pay a price as a higher multiple of EPS.
Plus if they considered company to be risky then they would also expect the EPS to fluctuate a lot, so again they would not pay a price which is a higher multiple of current EPS. -
Question 204 of 999CB1002011
Question 204
Flag“Preference shares are more like debt than equity”. Which of the following statements explain
this most correctly?Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONThere is no tax relief on the payment of dividends of preference shares, therefore treatment of preference shares dividend is same as that of equity.
One can buy and sell equity shares as well.
One can make capital gain or losses on preference shares.
So, the above options make preference shares more like equity than debt.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONThere is no tax relief on the payment of dividends of preference shares, therefore treatment of preference shares dividend is same as that of equity.
One can buy and sell equity shares as well.
One can make capital gain or losses on preference shares.
So, the above options make preference shares more like equity than debt. -
Question 205 of 999CB1002012
Question 205
FlagIn a limited liability company, who bears the legal responsibility for the financial affairs?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONBoard of directors are legally responsible for the affairs of the company.
Board of directors will be questioned and held responsible if the commitments made to creditors are not obliged.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONBoard of directors are legally responsible for the affairs of the company.
Board of directors will be questioned and held responsible if the commitments made to creditors are not obliged. -
Question 206 of 999CB1002013
Question 206
FlagWhat is the most appropriate about the cost of providing finance from retained earnings?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONRetained profits belongs to equity shareholders, which is something they chose not to receive as dividends and instead keep it in the company for future growth and expansion of the company. So, the cost of retained earnings is the same as that of ordinary share capital.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONRetained profits belongs to equity shareholders, which is something they chose not to receive as dividends and instead keep it in the company for future growth and expansion of the company. So, the cost of retained earnings is the same as that of ordinary share capital.
-
Question 207 of 999CB1002015
Question 207
FlagThe net present value (NPV) method is generally considered to provide the most consistent and relevant basis for selection of investment projects. Which of the following situations creates the greatest threat to the validity of evaluating projects using NPV in practice?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONNPV cannot take emotions of the manager into consideration, so there is no way of knowing whether the manager is undertaking this project for selfish reasons or not.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONNPV cannot take emotions of the manager into consideration, so there is no way of knowing whether the manager is undertaking this project for selfish reasons or not.
-
Question 208 of 999CB1002016
Question 208
FlagA small penalty has been imposed upon a general insurance company by the regulator for breaching a guideline. As per materiality concept, while preparing financial statements, the insurer should:
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONThe penalty imposed by the regulator will have to be disclosed by insurer irrespective of whether regulator asks the insurer to do so or not.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONThe penalty imposed by the regulator will have to be disclosed by insurer irrespective of whether regulator asks the insurer to do so or not.
-
Question 209 of 999CB1002017
Question 209
FlagIn the statement of financial position, equity can arise by:
I. Sale of shares
II. Revaluation of non-current assets
III. Increase in market capitalisation
IV. Retention of profitCorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONRetention of profit will lead to equity arising in financial position.
Therefore option A, B and C are incorrect.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONRetention of profit will lead to equity arising in financial position.
Therefore option A, B and C are incorrect. -
Question 210 of 999CB1002018
Question 210
FlagWhich of the following is not a consideration for trade receivable management?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONWe would not be concerned about getting amount due back from the customer if they have good bank balance, good credit rating and past experience with the customer suggests that they repay the amount due on time.
Many companies have poor profit margins but since they have good amount of money in their bank, company would not be concerned.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONWe would not be concerned about getting amount due back from the customer if they have good bank balance, good credit rating and past experience with the customer suggests that they repay the amount due on time.
Many companies have poor profit margins but since they have good amount of money in their bank, company would not be concerned.
-
Question 211 of 999CB1002019
Question 211
FlagWhich of the following is NOT a forecasting technique?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Beyond budgeting is a technique of budgeting, it is not a forecasting technique.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Beyond budgeting is a technique of budgeting, it is not a forecasting technique.
-
Question 212 of 999CB1002020
Question 212
FlagWhat is the nature of relationship between market price of a share and pay-out ratio of the company?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONPayout is the amount of dividend that company is paying out it has nothing to do with market price. If anything, market price would be dependent on company’s payout strategy.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONPayout is the amount of dividend that company is paying out it has nothing to do with market price. If anything, market price would be dependent on company’s payout strategy.
-
Question 213 of 999CB1002021
Question 213
FlagWho of the following is legally responsible for the commitment owed by a private limited company to its lenders?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONThe directors are legally responsible for the commitment owed by a private limited company. Auditors just verify that books of accounts represent true and fair view of the company or not.
It is not possible to drag every single shareholder to court so they are not legally responsible, worst-case scenario they lose the money they have invested.
Directors are the one who will have to go to the hearings of the tribunal (court for company), and they would be questioned as to why the commitments were not obliged.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONThe directors are legally responsible for the commitment owed by a private limited company. Auditors just verify that books of accounts represent true and fair view of the company or not.
It is not possible to drag every single shareholder to court so they are not legally responsible, worst-case scenario they lose the money they have invested.
Directors are the one who will have to go to the hearings of the tribunal (court for company), and they would be questioned as to why the commitments were not obliged. -
Question 214 of 999CB1002022
Question 214
FlagAn actuarial consultant in India is due to receive a payment in $US from an overseas client on 31 December 2021. The consultant has decided to buy an option contract to protect himself from fluctuations in the value of the $US. Which of the following is the most important aspect of the option contract he should purchase?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Consultant is receiving payment in dollars, so they would want to protect themselves from value of dollars rising against rupees. Hence, they should purchase put option to sell dollars.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Consultant is receiving payment in dollars, so they would want to protect themselves from value of dollars rising against rupees. Hence, they should purchase put option to sell dollars.
-
Question 215 of 999CB1002023
Question 215
FlagWhich is the best measure of the cost of retained profits in a business?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONRetained profits belongs to equity shareholders, which is something they chose not to receive as dividends and instead keep it in the company for future growth and expansion of the company. So, the cost of retained earnings is the same as that of ordinary share capital.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONRetained profits belongs to equity shareholders, which is something they chose not to receive as dividends and instead keep it in the company for future growth and expansion of the company. So, the cost of retained earnings is the same as that of ordinary share capital.
-
Question 216 of 999CB1002025
Question 216
FlagWhy financial valuers generally calculate Earnings before Interest, Taxation, Depreciation and Amortisation (EBITDA)?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONEBITDA is regarded as less prone to manipulation than net profit because depreciation and amortization amount is dependent on the method chosen by the accountants, so this amount can be manipulated.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONEBITDA is regarded as less prone to manipulation than net profit because depreciation and amortization amount is dependent on the method chosen by the accountants, so this amount can be manipulated.
-
Question 217 of 999CB1002026
Question 217
FlagA manufacturing company showing a consistent PAT but is facing significant reduction in its working capital position. Which of the following events best explains this divergence?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONIncreasing the credit period to its customer during this period would reduce the liquidity position and working capital position of the company, and would not affect the PAT of the company
The working capital would get worse off if proper utilization of resources is not made but it would also affect the PAT of the company, but since the question says that the PAT of the company is consistent therefore this is not the right answer.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONIncreasing the credit period to its customer during this period would reduce the liquidity position and working capital position of the company, and would not affect the PAT of the company
The working capital would get worse off if proper utilization of resources is not made but it would also affect the PAT of the company, but since the question says that the PAT of the company is consistent therefore this is not the right answer. -
Question 218 of 999CB1002027
Question 218
FlagCompany ABC has made Rs.10 cr. profit in 2020-21. It is expected that the company will continue to increase its profit by 10% in each year. On 31st March 2025, the Company is expected to have a terminal value of Rs.50 cr. What is the value of the Company as at March 2022, if the interest rate in the market is 5% p.a.?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
This is derived taking the present value of the profits and terminal cashflow of the company.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
This is derived taking the present value of the profits and terminal cashflow of the company.
-
Question 219 of 999CB1002028
Question 219
FlagMr. X has a business which is not listed on stock exchange. So he raised a debt of Rs.5cr from Mr. Y and promised to repay it in June 2021 to expand his business. However, he has been unable to repay it on time. So, Mr. Y has filed a legal suit against Mr. X to get ownership of Mr. X’s house worth Rs.5 cr. However, the court ruled the case in favor of Mr. X. Why was the decision in favor of Mr. X?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONOption A and option C are not the legal solution for this problem.
Since the business of Mr. X is not listed on stock exchange it would be reasonable to assume in this question that business of Mr. X cannot be listed on stock exchange.
So, business of Mr. X must be a private limited company.
In a company the members of the company are not personally liable for the debts of the business which would explain why Mr. Y was not able to get his money back from the personal property of Mr. X.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONOption A and option C are not the legal solution for this problem.
Since the business of Mr. X is not listed on stock exchange it would be reasonable to assume in this question that business of Mr. X cannot be listed on stock exchange.
So, business of Mr. X must be a private limited company.
In a company the members of the company are not personally liable for the debts of the business which would explain why Mr. Y was not able to get his money back from the personal property of Mr. X. -
Question 220 of 999CB1002029
Question 220
FlagWhich of the following risk is systematic in nature?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONEvery company in today’s day and time would be affected by the cybersecurity risk.
Whereas the natural risk of earthquake will only affect the global re-insurer and the other local businesses who directly or indirectly have something to do with the region in and around the region of earthquake.
An earthquake in Delhi will in no way affect domestic companies of UK unless they have some business in Delhi.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONEvery company in today’s day and time would be affected by the cybersecurity risk.
Whereas the natural risk of earthquake will only affect the global re-insurer and the other local businesses who directly or indirectly have something to do with the region in and around the region of earthquake.
An earthquake in Delhi will in no way affect domestic companies of UK unless they have some business in Delhi. -
Question 221 of 999CB1002030
Question 221
FlagThe following financial items are not considered while computing tax liability of a Company:
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONDividend received is investment income for a company and will be taken into consideration.
Revenue is directly taken into consideration for tax liability calculation.
Interest paid is also taken into consideration to determine the profit before tax of the company.
Dividend paid by the company is something that comes after PAT, and plus there is no tax benefits that company receives on paying dividends so they are not taken into consideration.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONDividend received is investment income for a company and will be taken into consideration.
Revenue is directly taken into consideration for tax liability calculation.
Interest paid is also taken into consideration to determine the profit before tax of the company.
Dividend paid by the company is something that comes after PAT, and plus there is no tax benefits that company receives on paying dividends so they are not taken into consideration. -
Question 222 of 999CB1002031
Question 222
FlagWhich of the following methods of valuing inventory results in the highest overvaluation of an inventory item when it’s prices are falling?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONIf the prices of the inventory are falling then goods that were bought last will have the lowest value whereas the ones who came first will have the highest value. So following LIFO method will result in overvaluation of an inventory item.
All the other options are irrelevant.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONIf the prices of the inventory are falling then goods that were bought last will have the lowest value whereas the ones who came first will have the highest value. So following LIFO method will result in overvaluation of an inventory item.
All the other options are irrelevant. -
Question 223 of 999CB1002032
Question 223
FlagThe share price of Company XYZ Ltd. is currently Rs.100. The Company is now offering 1-for-2 rights issue to all its existing shareholders at Rs.60. The 2 shareholders Mr. A & Mr. B react differently to the rights issue:
Mr. A holds 100 shares and exercises his option for 50% of his holding
Mr. B holds 50 shares and does not exercise his option at all
What is value of holding for Mr. A & Mr. B after the rights issue?Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONCompany is now offering 1 -for-2 rights issue:
Number of shares Mr. A will have after right issue $=100+50 \times 0.5=125$
(This is because he only exercised $50 \%$ of his holding)
Number of shares Mr. B will have after right issue $=50$
(This is because he did not exercise his option at all)
Value of shares after right share issue $=100 \times 2 / 3+50 \times 1 / 3=86.67$
Value of Mr. A’s holding $=125 \times 86.67=$ Rs. 10,833
Value of Mrs. B’s holding $=50 \times 86.67=$ Rs. 4,333.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONCompany is now offering 1 -for-2 rights issue:
Number of shares Mr. A will have after right issue $=100+50 \times 0.5=125$
(This is because he only exercised $50 \%$ of his holding)
Number of shares Mr. B will have after right issue $=50$
(This is because he did not exercise his option at all)
Value of shares after right share issue $=100 \times 2 / 3+50 \times 1 / 3=86.67$
Value of Mr. A’s holding $=125 \times 86.67=$ Rs. 10,833
Value of Mrs. B’s holding $=50 \times 86.67=$ Rs. 4,333.
-
Question 224 of 999CB1002034
Question 224
FlagCompany ABC is planning to acquire Company XYZ for a value of Rs.100 million in an all cash deal. Company XYZ has a net worth of Rs.120 million according to its financial statement on the date of takeover. The difference of Rs.20 million can be attributed in ABC’s book as:
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONGoodwill = Purchase consideration – Net Asset taken over.
Goodwill = Rs.100m – Rs.120m = -Rs.20m
This is negative goodwill, which is also known as Capital Reserve.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONGoodwill = Purchase consideration – Net Asset taken over.
Goodwill = Rs.100m – Rs.120m = -Rs.20m
This is negative goodwill, which is also known as Capital Reserve.
-
Question 225 of 999CB1002037
Question 225
FlagWhat is not a motive for growth:
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Integrity has nothing to do with growth and expansion.
Growth and expansion does however equate to increased profits, lower risks of predating companies and stable workforceIncorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Integrity has nothing to do with growth and expansion.
Growth and expansion does however equate to increased profits, lower risks of predating companies and stable workforce -
Question 226 of 999CB1002038
Question 226
FlagA smartphone distributor having multiple stores across the country has decided that instead of setting a budget for each store, it will allow stores to compete with one another for sales & profitability. Which of the following best describes its approach?
Correct
The correct answer is E.
EXPLANATIONThis is beyond budgeting as it is in this type of budgeting that management makes the branch offices compete with each other instead of making a budget for every branch.
Incremental budget takes previous budget into consideration and sets a new budget, which is not the case here.
This is also not zero-based budgeting as in this type of budgeting each store will have to justify their costs, there is no inter-competition between stores here.Incorrect
The correct answer is E.
EXPLANATIONThis is beyond budgeting as it is in this type of budgeting that management makes the branch offices compete with each other instead of making a budget for every branch.
Incremental budget takes previous budget into consideration and sets a new budget, which is not the case here.
This is also not zero-based budgeting as in this type of budgeting each store will have to justify their costs, there is no inter-competition between stores here. -
Question 227 of 999CB1002040
Question 227
FlagWhich of the following is not an objective of an employee:
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONEthical marketing of good is not going to be the objective of an employee. Training, Job security and safe working conditions all directly affect the employee and they are objective of employee.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONEthical marketing of good is not going to be the objective of an employee. Training, Job security and safe working conditions all directly affect the employee and they are objective of employee.
-
Question 228 of 999CB1002042
Question 228
FlagIn circumstances where a restriction has been placed on the evidence that the auditor can access or where the auditor disagrees with the treatment of a matter related to company accounts, which of the following does the auditor issue:
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONWhen the auditor is extremely uncertain about the financial statement that they are unable to form an opinion then disclaimer of an opinion is given.
When auditor disagrees with the treatment of the matter then qualified opinion is given.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONWhen the auditor is extremely uncertain about the financial statement that they are unable to form an opinion then disclaimer of an opinion is given.
When auditor disagrees with the treatment of the matter then qualified opinion is given. -
Question 229 of 999CB1002043
Question 229
FlagMr. X started his own event management company and hired his friend Mr. Y to become the Creative Head. Then, they both hired 10 more employees to help them scale the event management business. What kind of business entity is this?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONA sole trader can hire employees, Mr. X have not made Mr. Y as a partner.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONA sole trader can hire employees, Mr. X have not made Mr. Y as a partner.
-
Question 230 of 999CB1002045
Question 230
FlagThe difference between gross investment & net investment is
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONNet investment is difference between gross investment and depreciation.
All the other options are completely irrelevant.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONNet investment is difference between gross investment and depreciation.
All the other options are completely irrelevant. -
Question 231 of 999CB1002046
Question 231
FlagWhich of the following is the correct sequence of finance options in increasing order of risk:
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONDebenture stock has the least risk because they are generally raised against fixed charge of assets and default on them will at worst lead to those charges getting sold off.
In case of subordinated debt, the default in payment will lead to crystallization of assets.
In case of convertible preference shares if there is non-payment of dividends consecutively then they will get voting powers which leads to risk, plus there is risk of them converting to equity shares. Which means more heads to listen to while making a decision.
Equity has the highest risk as they have voting powers to they can make company take bad decisions.Even if this question is attempted from the perspective of an investor, then also you will end up this option. Debenture holders have the priority of payment at the time of liquidation, then comes subordinated debt holders, then comes preference share holders and then finally comes equity holders.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONDebenture stock has the least risk because they are generally raised against fixed charge of assets and default on them will at worst lead to those charges getting sold off.
In case of subordinated debt, the default in payment will lead to crystallization of assets.
In case of convertible preference shares if there is non-payment of dividends consecutively then they will get voting powers which leads to risk, plus there is risk of them converting to equity shares. Which means more heads to listen to while making a decision.
Equity has the highest risk as they have voting powers to they can make company take bad decisions.Even if this question is attempted from the perspective of an investor, then also you will end up this option. Debenture holders have the priority of payment at the time of liquidation, then comes subordinated debt holders, then comes preference share holders and then finally comes equity holders.
-
Question 232 of 999CB1002047
Question 232
FlagWhich of the following scenarios best extends itself to JIT inventory management approach of a company?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONJIT has nothing to do with cost minimization or proper storage of seasonal agricultural products but everything to do with minimization of time it takes for product to reach from manufacturing unit to supply unit.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONJIT has nothing to do with cost minimization or proper storage of seasonal agricultural products but everything to do with minimization of time it takes for product to reach from manufacturing unit to supply unit.
-
Question 233 of 999CB1002048
Question 233
FlagWhich of these is a bearer document?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONNon-recourse factoring is something that a business takes from a factor this is not a document.
Commercial paper is a bearer document.
Overdraft is taken from bank and only the company who takes overdraft can repay it.
Trade credit is again not a bearer document.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONNon-recourse factoring is something that a business takes from a factor this is not a document.
Commercial paper is a bearer document.
Overdraft is taken from bank and only the company who takes overdraft can repay it.
Trade credit is again not a bearer document. -
Question 234 of 999CB1002049
Question 234
FlagWhich of the following is not a part of sustainability report produced by the directors?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONSustainability reporting does not have financial aspect or anything related to the business of the company.
Business sustainability is provided in board reports which are not a part of sustainability reporting.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONSustainability reporting does not have financial aspect or anything related to the business of the company.
Business sustainability is provided in board reports which are not a part of sustainability reporting. -
Question 235 of 999CB1002050
Question 235
FlagWhich of this is not an example of risk mitigation:
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONConsidering it in the planning and growth discussion would have been an example of risk mitigation, but since no discussion for the same was made it is not an example of risk mitigation.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONConsidering it in the planning and growth discussion would have been an example of risk mitigation, but since no discussion for the same was made it is not an example of risk mitigation.
-
Question 236 of 999CB1002051
Question 236
FlagAn asset costing Rs.10,000 was purchased 5 years ago & deemed to have a useful life of 10 years, was recently sold for Rs.5,000. It’s value in the books at the time of sale was Rs.4,000. Calculate the written down value depreciation rate used for the asset:
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATION\begin{array}{|l|l|l|l|}
\hline Year & Value \,of \,asset \,at \,the \,start & Depreciation & Value \,of \,asset \,at \,the \,end \\
\hline 1 & 10000 & $10000 \times 0.2011=2011$ & $10000-2011=7989$ \\
\hline 2 & 7989 & $7989 \times 0.2011=1606.5879$ & 6382.4121 \\
\hline 3 & 6382.4121 & $6382.4121 \times 0.2011=1283.50307$ & 5098.909027 \\
\hline 4 & 5098.909027 & $5098.91 \times 0.2011=1025.39061$ & 4073.518421 \\
\hline
\end{array}So the value of assets at the start of year 5 is closest to book value of 4000 that we can get to. We have used depreciation rate of $20.11 \%$
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATION\begin{array}{|l|l|l|l|}
\hline Year & Value \,of \,asset \,at \,the \,start & Depreciation & Value \,of \,asset \,at \,the \,end \\
\hline 1 & 10000 & $10000 \times 0.2011=2011$ & $10000-2011=7989$ \\
\hline 2 & 7989 & $7989 \times 0.2011=1606.5879$ & 6382.4121 \\
\hline 3 & 6382.4121 & $6382.4121 \times 0.2011=1283.50307$ & 5098.909027 \\
\hline 4 & 5098.909027 & $5098.91 \times 0.2011=1025.39061$ & 4073.518421 \\
\hline
\end{array}So the value of assets at the start of year 5 is closest to book value of 4000 that we can get to. We have used depreciation rate of $20.11 \%$
-
Question 237 of 999CB1002052
Question 237
FlagThe distinction between an American Option and European Option is that
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONAn American option can be exercised anytime before the due data; an European option can only be exercised at the time of the maturity.
Option C is incorrect as again American option can be exercised anytime before the due data.The key here is to read the options mindfully.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONAn American option can be exercised anytime before the due data; an European option can only be exercised at the time of the maturity.
Option C is incorrect as again American option can be exercised anytime before the due data.The key here is to read the options mindfully.
-
Question 238 of 999CB1002054
Question 238
FlagRecognition of a lease as a finance lease as opposed to an operating lease by the lessee will most likely result in a higher:
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Recognizing operating lease as finance lease will not affect liquidity position of the company. So, option C and option D is incorrect.
Debt-to-asset will increase because of recognizing operating lease as finance lease.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Recognizing operating lease as finance lease will not affect liquidity position of the company. So, option C and option D is incorrect.
Debt-to-asset will increase because of recognizing operating lease as finance lease. -
Question 239 of 999CB1002055
Question 239
FlagStatement 1: Apart from normal dividends, cumulative preference shares get an additional dividend if the company’s profits exceed a pre-specified level.
Statement 2: From the investor’s perspective, callable common shares are more risky than puttable common shares.
Which of the following is most likely?Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect because cumulative preference shareholders do not get such benefits.
Statement 2 is correct because puttable common shares are a safety net for the investors, so from their perspective callable common shares are riskier.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect because cumulative preference shareholders do not get such benefits.
Statement 2 is correct because puttable common shares are a safety net for the investors, so from their perspective callable common shares are riskier. -
Question 240 of 999CB1002056
Question 240
FlagHow might the interest of the company’s management be NOT aligned with those of shareholders
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Shareholders are interested in share price and earnings of company so if management’s remuneration and bonus are linked to this, then interest of management will get aligned with that of shareholders.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Shareholders are interested in share price and earnings of company so if management’s remuneration and bonus are linked to this, then interest of management will get aligned with that of shareholders.
-
Question 241 of 999CB1002058
Question 241
FlagAny company’s management wish to receive what sort of opinion from auditors on its accounts?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
For a company getting any opinion other than unqualified opinion will result in not only shareholders removing the management but also creditor and debtors being concerned about their money. Also, this can lead to government intervention
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
For a company getting any opinion other than unqualified opinion will result in not only shareholders removing the management but also creditor and debtors being concerned about their money. Also, this can lead to government intervention
-
Question 242 of 999CB1002059
Question 242
FlagWhich of the option is correct using as an approach to forecasting?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
All of the options are an approach to forecasting, refer to chapter 17 of ActEd’s Core Material Pack.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
All of the options are an approach to forecasting, refer to chapter 17 of ActEd’s Core Material Pack.
-
Question 243 of 999CB1002060
Question 243
FlagThe cash-flow position can be improved by?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:Fast payment of trade payables would worsen the cashflow position.
Deferring the payments of trade receivables would also worsen the cashflow position.
Disposing of an asset can be done by sale of the asset, so this would improve the cashflow position.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:Fast payment of trade payables would worsen the cashflow position.
Deferring the payments of trade receivables would also worsen the cashflow position.
Disposing of an asset can be done by sale of the asset, so this would improve the cashflow position. -
Question 244 of 999CB1002061
Question 244
FlagA company has INR 500,000 line of credit at 10.0% pa with a 1.0% pa commitment fee on the full amount available. The company draws down INR 100,000 for 6 months. The annual financing cost of this arrangement is:
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
There is 10% p.a. interest on the amount drawn and 1% pa on the entire amount available.
So if company draws only Rs.1,00,000 then they are paying 10% pa interest on that plus they are paying 1% commitment fees on the entire amount available to them, that is 1% on 5,00,000 which is equivalent to 5% on 1,00,000.
So the cost of financing for the company = 10% + 5% = 15%Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
There is 10% p.a. interest on the amount drawn and 1% pa on the entire amount available.
So if company draws only Rs.1,00,000 then they are paying 10% pa interest on that plus they are paying 1% commitment fees on the entire amount available to them, that is 1% on 5,00,000 which is equivalent to 5% on 1,00,000.
So the cost of financing for the company = 10% + 5% = 15% -
Question 245 of 999CB1002062
Question 245
FlagWhich of the following is not an advantage of external growth against internal growth:
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONIf you going for external growth then you will have to deal with firm that lacks integrity, so this is not an advantage of external growth against internal growth.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONIf you going for external growth then you will have to deal with firm that lacks integrity, so this is not an advantage of external growth against internal growth.
-
Question 246 of 999CB1002063
Question 246
FlagCompany X is a large electronics company and Company Y is a small electronics company. Recently Company X invested in Company Y by purchasing 50% of its shares. What is the relationship of Company X to Company Y?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONFor company X to be a subsidiary company they will have to acquire more than 50% of shares of company Y. So company X will be regarded as an associate company.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONFor company X to be a subsidiary company they will have to acquire more than 50% of shares of company Y. So company X will be regarded as an associate company.
-
Question 247 of 999CB1002064
Question 247
FlagIn case of winding up of a company, who among the below list gets the highest preference for final payoff?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONFloating charge debenture holders are the first one to get paid because if company defaults on their payment then they can sue the company and have the court crystallize their floating charge into a fixed charge.
Then the employees get paid and then finally the trade creditors get paid.
Employees get paid first because they rely on their salary/wage to support their family.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONFloating charge debenture holders are the first one to get paid because if company defaults on their payment then they can sue the company and have the court crystallize their floating charge into a fixed charge.
Then the employees get paid and then finally the trade creditors get paid.
Employees get paid first because they rely on their salary/wage to support their family. -
Question 248 of 999CB1002065
Question 248
FlagWhich of the following is not a profitability ratio?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONQuick ratio is not a profitability ratio, it is a ratio to test the liquidity of the company.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONQuick ratio is not a profitability ratio, it is a ratio to test the liquidity of the company.
-
Question 249 of 999CB1002066
Question 249
FlagWhich of the following is not a feature of commercial paper?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONCommercial papers are generally issued at a discount and are repaid at face value.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONCommercial papers are generally issued at a discount and are repaid at face value.
-
Question 250 of 999CB1002067
Question 250
Flag_________ enables an organization to measure, understand and communicate the economic, social and environmental effects of their activities. Fill in the blank.
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONSustainability reporting is especially made to measure, understand and communicate the environment, social and environmental effects of company’s activities.
Integrated reporting also deals with this but they also take financial aspect of the company into account.
So an appropriate answer would be sustainability reporting.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONSustainability reporting is especially made to measure, understand and communicate the environment, social and environmental effects of company’s activities.
Integrated reporting also deals with this but they also take financial aspect of the company into account.
So an appropriate answer would be sustainability reporting. -
Question 251 of 999CB1002068
Question 251
FlagHome Assistant, a popular home automation software group, has recently made a plan to launch their own hardware called Home Assistant Yellow. The plan is to raise sufficient capital for manufacturing the hardware. Participants in the crowd funding program will be able to first receive the manufactured system on chip.
This is an example of:Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONThis is an example of reward-based crowdfunding. The participants are not going to receive any interest or dividends or capital gain later, nor are they doing any ‘good’ or ‘charity’ work here.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONThis is an example of reward-based crowdfunding. The participants are not going to receive any interest or dividends or capital gain later, nor are they doing any ‘good’ or ‘charity’ work here.
-
Question 252 of 999CB1002069
Question 252
FlagA cloth wholesaler has been very popular and tends to sell his stock every 15 days. His son recently graduated from Premier Business School and is worried that his father’s 6-month long credit period policy for their customers, is bad for his business. On digging further, he has realized that his father takes about a year to pay his suppliers. He is testing profitability by calculating his father’s working capital cycle. How long will it be?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONWorking Capital Cycle = Inventory turnover period + Trade Receivables turnover period – Trade Payables turnover period
In this case we get,Working capital Cycle = 0.5 + 6 -12 = -5.5 months
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONWorking Capital Cycle = Inventory turnover period + Trade Receivables turnover period – Trade Payables turnover period
In this case we get,Working capital Cycle = 0.5 + 6 -12 = -5.5 months
-
Question 253 of 999CB1002070
Question 253
FlagThe current implied interbank exchange rate is 1.5% per quarter. What is the price of 3 month interest rate future?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATION3 month interest rate future would be given by:
Index = 100 – 4$×$0.015 = 94
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATION3 month interest rate future would be given by:
Index = 100 – 4$×$0.015 = 94
-
Question 254 of 999CB1002071
Question 254
FlagWhat is Beyond Budgeting?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
In beyond budgeting there is no budget and is generally made so that leaders compete against each other.
Which basically means that individual branches do not receive budgets. Instead, each brank manager is measured on their branch’s performance.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
In beyond budgeting there is no budget and is generally made so that leaders compete against each other.
Which basically means that individual branches do not receive budgets. Instead, each brank manager is measured on their branch’s performance. -
Question 255 of 999CB1002072
Question 255
FlagWhich of the following defines a limited company’s relationship with the outside world?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Memorandum of Association defines a company’s relationship with the outside world, as it has the name clause, location clause, objective clause, etc, It has all the objectives of the company what project company can undertake. Plus, it has the address of the registered office of the company to which outsiders send all the documents addressed to the company.
Annual company reports and accounts are for the shareholders.
Share certificate again is for the shareholders.
Articles of association are the internal rules of the company.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Memorandum of Association defines a company’s relationship with the outside world, as it has the name clause, location clause, objective clause, etc, It has all the objectives of the company what project company can undertake. Plus, it has the address of the registered office of the company to which outsiders send all the documents addressed to the company.
Annual company reports and accounts are for the shareholders.
Share certificate again is for the shareholders.
Articles of association are the internal rules of the company. -
Question 256 of 999CB1002073
Question 256
FlagWhat does ‘crystallizing’ mean in debentures?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
This is the definition of crystallizing.
In crystallizing all the assets of the company will get converted into fixed charge, and company can now only make a major selling or renovation if they have the permission from the debenture holders.
The debenture-holders would still be paid as per the normal priority ranking, that will not change even if company defaults.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
This is the definition of crystallizing.
In crystallizing all the assets of the company will get converted into fixed charge, and company can now only make a major selling or renovation if they have the permission from the debenture holders.
The debenture-holders would still be paid as per the normal priority ranking, that will not change even if company defaults. -
Question 257 of 999CB1002074
Question 257
FlagWhich of the following statement is true in case of public limited companies?
I. Separation of ownership and management allows share ownership to change without generally interfering with the operations of the business.
II. Limited liability allows large number of people to invest large amounts of money with relatively minimal disclosures.
III. It is subject to information asymmetry across various stakeholders.
IV. It allows the managers of the company to always act in the best interest of the shareholders.Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Statement II is incorrect because a significant disclosure will have to be made in case of limited liability company, this makes option A and B incorrect.
Statement III is also correct because in case of a closely held company it is possible to disclose all the information to the shareholders, but in case of a public company it is not to disclose all the information to the shareholders as it can lead to competitors getting hold of our strategies. Hence the important information are often withheld leading to information asymmetry. Hence option C is also incorrect.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Statement II is incorrect because a significant disclosure will have to be made in case of limited liability company, this makes option A and B incorrect.
Statement III is also correct because in case of a closely held company it is possible to disclose all the information to the shareholders, but in case of a public company it is not to disclose all the information to the shareholders as it can lead to competitors getting hold of our strategies. Hence the important information are often withheld leading to information asymmetry. Hence option C is also incorrect. -
Question 258 of 999CB1002075
Question 258
FlagWhich of the following statement is incorrect?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
If the assets in the pool are insufficient then company cannot be held liable to pay the remaining amount. So option C is incorrect.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
If the assets in the pool are insufficient then company cannot be held liable to pay the remaining amount. So option C is incorrect.
-
Question 259 of 999CB1002076
Question 259
FlagWhich of the below statement is not true about shadow banking?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
The major catch of shadow banking is that it is not subject to the same reserve and capital requirements as normal banks. And shadow banking do perform maturity transformation and since they are not backed by the central bank they have higher liquidity risk as compared to the normal banks. Also, there is no restriction on shadow banks from borrowing money from money market.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
The major catch of shadow banking is that it is not subject to the same reserve and capital requirements as normal banks. And shadow banking do perform maturity transformation and since they are not backed by the central bank they have higher liquidity risk as compared to the normal banks. Also, there is no restriction on shadow banks from borrowing money from money market.
-
Question 260 of 999CB1002077
Question 260
FlagWhich one of the following is a characteristic of future contracts?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
In call option you have the right but not the obligation to trade but in future contract you have the obligation to trade.
Again, the premium is paid in case of a call option.
Both buyer and seller will have to deposit margin with the clearing house.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
In call option you have the right but not the obligation to trade but in future contract you have the obligation to trade.
Again, the premium is paid in case of a call option.
Both buyer and seller will have to deposit margin with the clearing house. -
Question 261 of 999CB1002078
Question 261
FlagXYZ is a globally renowned manufacturer of electronic gadgets with headquarters located in India. It uses a network of subsidiaries to maintain control over its supply chain. Its sales network across countries distribute XYZ gadgets, as well as other consumer electronic products. This is an example of
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
This is a very simple case of vertical integration as after manufacture of electronic gadgets the next step would be to supply these gadgets.
If they had a subsidiary which deals in manufacture of electronic gadgets then that would be an example of horizontal integration.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
This is a very simple case of vertical integration as after manufacture of electronic gadgets the next step would be to supply these gadgets.
If they had a subsidiary which deals in manufacture of electronic gadgets then that would be an example of horizontal integration. -
Question 262 of 999CB1002079
Question 262
FlagWhich of the following would indicate that ‘X’ is an associated company of ‘Y’?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
If Y had the right to appoint five out of eight directors in the board then Y would have a significant influence in X. And having the right to nominate three non-voting observers does not constitute any influence on the company but the access to information before anyone else. And if Y have total control over X then X would a subsidiary not a associate.
So option A is only correct.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
If Y had the right to appoint five out of eight directors in the board then Y would have a significant influence in X. And having the right to nominate three non-voting observers does not constitute any influence on the company but the access to information before anyone else. And if Y have total control over X then X would a subsidiary not a associate.
So option A is only correct. -
Question 263 of 999CB1002080
Question 263
FlagAn investor used to invest in any company only for a short period to achieve a capital gain. She is presently looking for a company’s share with high beta coefficient. Which of the following is a rational explanation for this investor to identify a high beta share?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
It is only that the investor expects the market to strengthen that she will go after a company which has a high beta coefficient.
High beta coefficient does not imply low dividend yield.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
It is only that the investor expects the market to strengthen that she will go after a company which has a high beta coefficient.
High beta coefficient does not imply low dividend yield. -
Question 264 of 999CB1002081
Question 264
FlagFor an insurance company calculate the “New business strain” if
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
New business strain is the excess of reserves and expenses and commission that the insurance company will have to set aside and incur at the outset over the premiums that they are getting. So for this question we get,
850+250-1000 = 100
So the new business strain is 100.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
New business strain is the excess of reserves and expenses and commission that the insurance company will have to set aside and incur at the outset over the premiums that they are getting. So for this question we get,
850+250-1000 = 100
So the new business strain is 100. -
Question 265 of 999CB1002082
Question 265
FlagWhich one of the following is the goal of the Financial Manager?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Net present value is calculated at the desired rate of return, so having a positive NPV is desired.
However, if project offers a rate of return higher than the cost of borrowing than also it is possible that the rate of return offered by the project is not the desired rate of return. So financial manager will have to make sure that the rate of return achieved by the project is the desired rate of return.
Financial manager would not be concerned about the social objectives of the company or about the climate change.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Net present value is calculated at the desired rate of return, so having a positive NPV is desired.
However, if project offers a rate of return higher than the cost of borrowing than also it is possible that the rate of return offered by the project is not the desired rate of return. So financial manager will have to make sure that the rate of return achieved by the project is the desired rate of return.
Financial manager would not be concerned about the social objectives of the company or about the climate change. -
Question 266 of 999CB1002083
Question 266
FlagInternal growth is preferred by firms that wish to:
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
If external growth route like merger and acquisition take place then the Government will intervene, therefore that is something that any owner will want to avoid, hence this is a supporter of internal growth.
Rest of the options are supporters of external growth.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
If external growth route like merger and acquisition take place then the Government will intervene, therefore that is something that any owner will want to avoid, hence this is a supporter of internal growth.
Rest of the options are supporters of external growth. -
Question 267 of 999CB1002084
Question 267
FlagWhich of the following statement is ‘true’ for a Pre-payment crowdfunding?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Option A is loan-based crowdfunding.
Option B is investment-based crowdfunding.
And option D is donation-based crowdfunding.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Option A is loan-based crowdfunding.
Option B is investment-based crowdfunding.
And option D is donation-based crowdfunding. -
Question 268 of 999CB1002085
Question 268
FlagWhich of the following statement is not true in case of limited companies?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
If the shares are issued are partly paid then the shareholders will have to pay the outstanding instalments at the time of liquidation, whether it includes premium or not. Though the premiums if payable on the shares are generally collected in the first call or the second call.
Option C is absolutely correct as the shareholders have limited liability in case of Company.
Articles of association do set out the internal rules for running the company.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
If the shares are issued are partly paid then the shareholders will have to pay the outstanding instalments at the time of liquidation, whether it includes premium or not. Though the premiums if payable on the shares are generally collected in the first call or the second call.
Option C is absolutely correct as the shareholders have limited liability in case of Company.
Articles of association do set out the internal rules for running the company. -
Question 269 of 999CB1002086
Question 269
FlagWhich of the following correctly describes operating leases?
I. The owner of the asset will retain most of the risks associated with owning the asset.
II. The leaser takes on most of the risks associated with owning the asset.
III. The lease will be for a period similar to the likely life of the asset.
IV. The lease will be for a period substantially shorter than the likely life of the asset.Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Operating lease is for a period which is substantially shorter than the likely life of the asset so statement IV is correct which eliminates Option A and B.
Statement II is also incorrect because in operating lease the owner of the asset takes on most of the risk associated with owning the asset. So this eliminates option C as well.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Operating lease is for a period which is substantially shorter than the likely life of the asset so statement IV is correct which eliminates Option A and B.
Statement II is also incorrect because in operating lease the owner of the asset takes on most of the risk associated with owning the asset. So this eliminates option C as well. -
Question 270 of 999CB1002087
Question 270
FlagWhich of the following is NOT a correct interpretation of the prudence concept?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
In this question Option A is true and fair representation of value of assets.
Option B is not a correct representation of prudence concept, since prudence concept says that in such situation asset should have been valued at Rs.5,00,000 and not Rs.7,00,000.
Option C can still be considered as prudence concept, because it is possible that accountant has valued the asset taking brokerage and selling cost into consideration.
Option D is a representation of prudence concept, plus many businesses in the world have not taken goodwill in their balance sheet.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
In this question Option A is true and fair representation of value of assets.
Option B is not a correct representation of prudence concept, since prudence concept says that in such situation asset should have been valued at Rs.5,00,000 and not Rs.7,00,000.
Option C can still be considered as prudence concept, because it is possible that accountant has valued the asset taking brokerage and selling cost into consideration.
Option D is a representation of prudence concept, plus many businesses in the world have not taken goodwill in their balance sheet. -
Question 271 of 999CB1002088
Question 271
FlagAn investor cannot afford to construct a well-diversified portfolio. Which of the following best describes the significance of the beta of potential investments to that investor?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Beta is still relevant for investors who cannot afford to make a well diversified portfolio.
Question no where says that investor was wants to make a safe investment.
Also, beta is still applicable even when investor is passively investing in the market, plus the question does not say that investor will be passively or actively investing in the market. It is possible that investments are made by investor in instalment basis.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Beta is still relevant for investors who cannot afford to make a well diversified portfolio.
Question no where says that investor was wants to make a safe investment.
Also, beta is still applicable even when investor is passively investing in the market, plus the question does not say that investor will be passively or actively investing in the market. It is possible that investments are made by investor in instalment basis. -
Question 272 of 999CB1002089
Question 272
FlagAn investment project has been evaluated using Monte Carlo simulation. After 10 lakh simulations, the results have stabilised and the expected net present value is positive and averages ₹1 crore, with a range of outcomes varying from minus ₹30 lakhs to plus ₹1.7 crore.
Which of the following statements best interprets these results?Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
The question says that project has positive expected NPV which suggests that this project has passed the NPV criterion.
We do not know what is considered as ‘risky’ project by the investment managers so we cannot comment anything on risk of the project.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
The question says that project has positive expected NPV which suggests that this project has passed the NPV criterion.
We do not know what is considered as ‘risky’ project by the investment managers so we cannot comment anything on risk of the project. -
Question 273 of 999CB1002090
Question 273
FlagWhich of the following best describes a ‘certainty equivalent’ used in project appraisal?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Certainty equivalent is the fixed amount that the decision makes would accept as an alternative to an uncertain expectation. This is the amount of wealth which provides the decision maker with the same amount of satisfaction or utility as the expected value from an uncertain cashflow.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Certainty equivalent is the fixed amount that the decision makes would accept as an alternative to an uncertain expectation. This is the amount of wealth which provides the decision maker with the same amount of satisfaction or utility as the expected value from an uncertain cashflow.
-
Question 274 of 999CB1002091
Question 274
FlagA company owns a machinery that costs ₹10,000 on 1st December 2012. The equipment’s estimated useful life was 10 years, and estimated scrap value was ₹1,000. What is the depreciation charge on this equipment for the year ended 30th November 2022, assuming the straight-line method of depreciation?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Depreciation = (10000-1000)/10 = 900
And since we are using the straight line method the depreciation amount will always remain same.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Depreciation = (10000-1000)/10 = 900
And since we are using the straight line method the depreciation amount will always remain same.
-
Question 275 of 999CB1004346
Question 275
FlagAlex is the investment manager of Company P’s pension fund, which all employees are required to join. Ely has just joined Company P as a junior manager.
Ely plans to remain with the company for 40 years before retiring on a full pension.
Ely has strong moral objections to financing the activities of the oil industry.
Ely has emailed Alex, asking for details of the fund’s existing holding in oil companies and for an assurance that the pension fund will not make further investments in oil companies.
Which two statements are correct from an ethical point of view?I. Alex should carry out Ely’s request not to invest further fund assets in oil shares
II. Alex should retain the fund’s existing oil holdings until it would be beneficial to sell
III. Alex should refuse Ely’s request for information about oil holdings
IV. Ely should resign if Alex refuses Ely’s requests concerning oil investments
V. Ely should withdraw the email on the grounds that Company P has many employees.Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATION
Alex is the principal in this situation. Alex being the principal should consider Ely’s request while keeping in mind the fund’s value. So thus he should retain the existing oil shares. Ely on the other hand being the agent should resign if he feels that the decision taken by the principal is still unethical from his point of view
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATION
Alex is the principal in this situation. Alex being the principal should consider Ely’s request while keeping in mind the fund’s value. So thus he should retain the existing oil shares. Ely on the other hand being the agent should resign if he feels that the decision taken by the principal is still unethical from his point of view
-
Question 276 of 999CB1004347
Question 276
FlagWhich of the following best describes the role of the stock market in motivating company directors to make sound decisions?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATION
A badly managed company,with a low share price,may be an attractive target for a takeover and it would be highly likely that the board would be replaced after the takeover and thus this would be a strong motivation for the directors to avoid this scenario.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATION
A badly managed company,with a low share price,may be an attractive target for a takeover and it would be highly likely that the board would be replaced after the takeover and thus this would be a strong motivation for the directors to avoid this scenario.
-
Question 277 of 999CB1004348
Question 277
FlagWhich of the following statements is CORRECT?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATION
Correct estimates of shareholder wealth can only been given by share price and dividends as director’s estimates or survey of shareholders might be biased or inaccurate. The share price and the dividends given on the share are a fair representation of the shareholder’s wealth.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATION
Correct estimates of shareholder wealth can only been given by share price and dividends as director’s estimates or survey of shareholders might be biased or inaccurate. The share price and the dividends given on the share are a fair representation of the shareholder’s wealth.
-
Question 278 of 999CB1004350
Question 278
FlagJess is currently Company F’s Finance Director. Jess plans to retire, but the Board wishes Jess to remain with Company F as a non-executive director. In the event of such an appointment Jess will not be an independent non-executive director as she would have previously served on Company F’s Board.
If Jess accepts this role, it would be ________ for her to work closely with the replacement Finance Director.
Jess _____ require training for her new role, given the nature of her past employment with company F.
Company F’s external auditor will be ______ if Jess remains on the board as a non-executive director.Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATION
As a non-executive director, Jess would be expected to provide oversight and impartial advice to the board, including the new Finance Director. Maintaining a close working relationship with the replacement Finance Director might compromise her ability to provide independent oversight so it would be undesirable.
Despite Jess’s extensive experience and knowledge gained as Finance Director of Company F, transitioning to a non-executive director role requires a different set of skills and responsibilities. So, Jess will require training.
Jess has an intimate understanding of Company F’s operations, financial history, and governance structures due to her previous role as Finance Director. Her continued involvement on the board in a non-executive capacity can provide valuable continuity and insights to the external auditor. So, the auditor will be reassured.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATION
As a non-executive director, Jess would be expected to provide oversight and impartial advice to the board, including the new Finance Director. Maintaining a close working relationship with the replacement Finance Director might compromise her ability to provide independent oversight so it would be undesirable.
Despite Jess’s extensive experience and knowledge gained as Finance Director of Company F, transitioning to a non-executive director role requires a different set of skills and responsibilities. So, Jess will require training.
Jess has an intimate understanding of Company F’s operations, financial history, and governance structures due to her previous role as Finance Director. Her continued involvement on the board in a non-executive capacity can provide valuable continuity and insights to the external auditor. So, the auditor will be reassured. -
Question 279 of 999CB1004351
Question 279
FlagChoose the correct option
Match the following table:Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATION
Shareholders not having sufficient information is definitely not theory of maximization of shareholder wealth, so this means option A and option D is not correct. And this is also not an agency problem so this means option B is also incorrect which leaves us with option C.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATION
Shareholders not having sufficient information is definitely not theory of maximization of shareholder wealth, so this means option A and option D is not correct. And this is also not an agency problem so this means option B is also incorrect which leaves us with option C.
-
Question 280 of 999CB1004352
Question 280
FlagAnalyze the statements below and choose the correct option
Statement I: Between Executive Directors and Non-Executive Directors ,only Executive Directors are board members.
Statement II: Non-Executive Directors do not manage the company.
Statement III: Non-Executive and Executive directors are both permitted to hold shares in the company.Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATION
Both Executive and Non-Executive Directors are board members so Statement I is false
Non-Executive Directors give their opinions to the executives but do not directly manage the company so II is correct.
Both types of directors can hold shares in the company so option III is also correct.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATION
Both Executive and Non-Executive Directors are board members so Statement I is false
Non-Executive Directors give their opinions to the executives but do not directly manage the company so II is correct.
Both types of directors can hold shares in the company so option III is also correct. -
Question 281 of 999CB1004353
Question 281
FlagWhich of the following statements best describes the role of corporate governance in finance?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATION
Effective corporate governance plays a crucial role in ensuring transparency, accountability, and ethical behavior in the management of a company. It involves defining the rights and responsibilities of various stakeholders, including shareholders, directors, and management, to protect the interests of shareholders and other stakeholders.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATION
Effective corporate governance plays a crucial role in ensuring transparency, accountability, and ethical behavior in the management of a company. It involves defining the rights and responsibilities of various stakeholders, including shareholders, directors, and management, to protect the interests of shareholders and other stakeholders.
-
Question 282 of 999CB1004354
Question 282
FlagWhich of the following statements are correct about Limited Liability Partnerships(LLP)-
I. Members of an LLP are not exposed to any risk or loss.
II. If the LLP itself failed it would cost each member his or her stake in the business
III. Each member is jointly and severally liable for the liabilities of the LLP
IV. Each member is personally liable for his or her share of the LLP’s liabilities
V. LLP’s (as with a limited company) are separate legal entities.Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATION
This is because in an LLP the member is only liable to his stake in his business and not severally liable like in a traditional partnership and they are not personally liable so C and D are incorrect and B is correct
LLP is a separate legal entity so E is correctIncorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATION
This is because in an LLP the member is only liable to his stake in his business and not severally liable like in a traditional partnership and they are not personally liable so C and D are incorrect and B is correct
LLP is a separate legal entity so E is correct -
Question 283 of 999CB1004355
Question 283
FlagA limited liability partnership (LLP) is facing bankruptcy because its managing partner had gone over and above the authority he had and taken a loan to invest in a new IT system for the LLP. The LLP is now struggling to service this loan. The LLP has three other partners who work in client-facing roles and take no active part in the LLP’s management.
Which of the following statements is correct?Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATION
The correct option is option D as the partner who has recklessly made the decision will be liable and action may be taken against him and his personal assets due to his negligent behavior.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATION
The correct option is option D as the partner who has recklessly made the decision will be liable and action may be taken against him and his personal assets due to his negligent behavior.
-
Question 284 of 999CB1004356
Question 284
FlagWhich of the following statements best describes a partnership?
I A partnership is a business owned by multiple shareholders, with limited liability for all partners.
II. Partnerships are legal entities separate from their owners, providing limited liability protection to partners.
III. In a partnership it is generally easier to manage the business as compared the sole proprietorship because there are multiple heads who can look after different aspects of the business.
IV. In a partnership, partners have unlimited liability and all the losses are borne by them.Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATION
Statement IV is correct as in a partnership, all partners share unlimited liability for the debts and obligations of the business. This means that each partner can be held personally liable for the partnership’s liabilities, putting their personal assets at risk to satisfy business debts.
Statement III is also correct regarding partnerships being easier to manage compared to sole proprietorships in certain aspects. Partnerships can have flexible management structure.
Statement I is incorrect because partnerships are not owned by shareholders; instead, they are owned and operated by partners who share the business’s profits, losses, and responsibilities.
Statement II is incorrect because partnerships are not typically considered separate legal entities like corporations or limited liability partnerships(LLP’s)Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATION
Statement IV is correct as in a partnership, all partners share unlimited liability for the debts and obligations of the business. This means that each partner can be held personally liable for the partnership’s liabilities, putting their personal assets at risk to satisfy business debts.
Statement III is also correct regarding partnerships being easier to manage compared to sole proprietorships in certain aspects. Partnerships can have flexible management structure.
Statement I is incorrect because partnerships are not owned by shareholders; instead, they are owned and operated by partners who share the business’s profits, losses, and responsibilities.
Statement II is incorrect because partnerships are not typically considered separate legal entities like corporations or limited liability partnerships(LLP’s) -
Question 285 of 999CB1004357
Question 285
FlagChoose the correct option by matching the following table:
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATION
In sole proprietorship there is only one owner and not ‘owners’ so option B and option D are incorrect.
There is no concept of shares in a LLP so option A is incorrect, which leaves us with option C.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATION
In sole proprietorship there is only one owner and not ‘owners’ so option B and option D are incorrect.
There is no concept of shares in a LLP so option A is incorrect, which leaves us with option C. -
Question 286 of 999CB1004358
Question 286
FlagWhich of the following is TRUE about a public company?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATION
The statement “Ordinary shareholders have one vote per share held” is true. In a public company, ordinary shareholders typically have voting rights that allow them to vote in proportion to the number of shares they hold. Each ordinary share typically carries one vote in most shareholder meetings.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATION
The statement “Ordinary shareholders have one vote per share held” is true. In a public company, ordinary shareholders typically have voting rights that allow them to vote in proportion to the number of shares they hold. Each ordinary share typically carries one vote in most shareholder meetings.
-
Question 287 of 999CB1004359
Question 287
FlagSelect ONE correct option.
Three individuals are considering starting a new business.
They have the following considerations:
$\bullet$ They want to protect themselves from personal liability to pay any debts owed in the event of the business becoming bankrupt
$\bullet$ Initially, they intend to raise £200 million from a combination of debt and equity financing
$\bullet$ They expect at least 40% of the funding to come from equity raised through a Stock Exchange.
Select the most appropriate capital structure for the business.Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATION
1. Limited Liability: A Public Limited Company (PLC) offers limited liability to its shareholders, which means the personal assets of shareholders are protected from the debts and liabilities of the company. This aligns with the desire to protect themselves from personal liability in case the business becomes bankrupt.
2. Raising £200 million: PLCs are suitable for raising large amounts of capital from the public through the issuance of shares on a stock exchange. The initial plan to raise £200 million from a combination of debt and equity financing, with at least 40% coming from equity through a Stock Exchange, is well-suited for a PLC.
3. Listing on Stock Exchange: PLCs can list their shares on a stock exchange, allowing for easy access to equity financing from public investors. This meets the requirement of expecting a significant portion of funding to come from equity raised through a Stock Exchange.
In contrast, the other options are not as suitable based on the considerations provided:
$\bullet$ Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) and Private Limited Company (Ltd): While these structures also offer limited liability, they are typically not designed for raising significant amounts of capital through public equity offerings on a stock exchange.
$\bullet$ Sole Trader: This structure does not offer limited liability and is not suitable for raising large amounts of capital from external investors.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATION
1. Limited Liability: A Public Limited Company (PLC) offers limited liability to its shareholders, which means the personal assets of shareholders are protected from the debts and liabilities of the company. This aligns with the desire to protect themselves from personal liability in case the business becomes bankrupt.
2. Raising £200 million: PLCs are suitable for raising large amounts of capital from the public through the issuance of shares on a stock exchange. The initial plan to raise £200 million from a combination of debt and equity financing, with at least 40% coming from equity through a Stock Exchange, is well-suited for a PLC.
3. Listing on Stock Exchange: PLCs can list their shares on a stock exchange, allowing for easy access to equity financing from public investors. This meets the requirement of expecting a significant portion of funding to come from equity raised through a Stock Exchange.
In contrast, the other options are not as suitable based on the considerations provided:
$\bullet$ Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) and Private Limited Company (Ltd): While these structures also offer limited liability, they are typically not designed for raising significant amounts of capital through public equity offerings on a stock exchange.
$\bullet$ Sole Trader: This structure does not offer limited liability and is not suitable for raising large amounts of capital from external investors. -
Question 288 of 999CB1004360
Question 288
FlagSelect the correct option by filling in the blanks:
It is______ for a limited liability company to raise capital than it is for a large partnership as investors will be _______ to become involved as a part owner of a large partnership since they will have to risk their entire personal wealth.
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATION
It is generally easier for a limited liability company (LLC) to raise capital compared to a large partnership. This is because LLCs offer limited liability to their owners (members), meaning that investors are not personally liable for the debts and obligations of the company beyond their investment. This reduced risk can make investing in an LLC more attractive and thus easier to raise capital.
Investors would be reluctant to become involved with a large partnership as their personal wealth is involved whereas in an LLC his liability is limited and personal assets are protected.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATION
It is generally easier for a limited liability company (LLC) to raise capital compared to a large partnership. This is because LLCs offer limited liability to their owners (members), meaning that investors are not personally liable for the debts and obligations of the company beyond their investment. This reduced risk can make investing in an LLC more attractive and thus easier to raise capital.
Investors would be reluctant to become involved with a large partnership as their personal wealth is involved whereas in an LLC his liability is limited and personal assets are protected. -
Question 289 of 999CB1004362
Question 289
FlagYou have been provided with this information about Person X in respect of a particular tax year:
$\bullet$ received £30,000 from their employment
$\bullet$ made a capital gain of £15,000
$\bullet$ bought shares for £20,000, then sold those shares for £22,000
$\bullet$ No dividends were received in respect of these shares
$\bullet$ the tax-free allowance was £10,000 for income and £5,000 for capital gains
Person X will be subject to income tax on ______ and capital gains tax on ______
Select the correct options to fill the blanks:Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATION
This is because 10000 will be deducted from his income so his income tax becomes 20000(30-10) His capital gain is 15+2 = 17000 in total and 5000 is deductible so he will be taxed on (17-5) 12000.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATION
This is because 10000 will be deducted from his income so his income tax becomes 20000(30-10) His capital gain is 15+2 = 17000 in total and 5000 is deductible so he will be taxed on (17-5) 12000.
-
Question 290 of 999CB1004363
Question 290
FlagA company has 100% ownership of an overseas subsidiary that consistently earns profit. The effect of Double Taxation Relief (DTR) on this group means that it will be taxed:
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATION
For reference check page 16 of chapter 4 of institute material.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATION
For reference check page 16 of chapter 4 of institute material.
-
Question 291 of 999CB1004364
Question 291
FlagInvestment Income often has TDS to:
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATION
There is no reason to discourage dividends.
And theoretically if the investor receives the income , it is sufficient to pay this tax
Tax Deducted at Source makes collection simpler for the government.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATION
There is no reason to discourage dividends.
And theoretically if the investor receives the income , it is sufficient to pay this tax
Tax Deducted at Source makes collection simpler for the government. -
Question 292 of 999CB1004365
Question 292
FlagWhich of the following will NOT be taxed under personal taxation?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATION
In India agricultural income is not taxable.
Capital gain tax will have to be paid on Option A.
Inheritance tax is also there in India.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATION
In India agricultural income is not taxable.
Capital gain tax will have to be paid on Option A.
Inheritance tax is also there in India. -
Question 293 of 999CB1004366
Question 293
FlagTOYCO PLC (a UK company) has set up a new toys business in Japan. At the end of the year, it earns £10000 in Japan from the business. It has been subject to a 18% tax in Japan. The corporation tax in the UK is 20%. Japan and UK have a Double Taxation agreement. What are TOYCO’s post-tax earnings?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATION
As both the countries have a double taxation agreement, TOYCO will be charged at the higher rate between the two countries and as the rate in UK is higher (20%) the post-tax earnings would be 10000 − (0.2 × 10000) = £8000
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATION
As both the countries have a double taxation agreement, TOYCO will be charged at the higher rate between the two countries and as the rate in UK is higher (20%) the post-tax earnings would be 10000 − (0.2 × 10000) = £8000
-
Question 294 of 999CB1004367
Question 294
FlagChoose ONE correct option
Which of the following statements is true about Debenture stocks as a source of long-term finance?
I: Debentures are generally secured on some or all assets of the company
II: Debentures pay fixed interest to the holders
III: Debenture holders have voting rights in the company
IV: Debentures represent ownership in the companyCorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATION
Debentures are long-term debt instruments issued by companies to raise funds from the public. They are usually secured by specific assets of the company, providing security to the debenture holders in case of default. So, I is true.
Debentures pay a fixed rate of interest to the holders at regular intervals, typically semi-annually or annually. This interest payment is a contractual obligation of the company to the debenture holders. So, II is true.
IV is incorrect because debentures represent debt and not ownership shares. Debenture holders are creditors of the company, not owners.
III is generally not true. Debenture holders typically do not have voting rights in the company’s affairs, unlike shareholders who have ownership and voting rights.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATION
Debentures are long-term debt instruments issued by companies to raise funds from the public. They are usually secured by specific assets of the company, providing security to the debenture holders in case of default. So, I is true.
Debentures pay a fixed rate of interest to the holders at regular intervals, typically semi-annually or annually. This interest payment is a contractual obligation of the company to the debenture holders. So, II is true.
IV is incorrect because debentures represent debt and not ownership shares. Debenture holders are creditors of the company, not owners.
III is generally not true. Debenture holders typically do not have voting rights in the company’s affairs, unlike shareholders who have ownership and voting rights. -
Question 295 of 999CB1004368
Question 295
FlagChoose ONE correct option
Assertion: Long-term finance is typically used to fund capital expenditures and investments in assets with longer useful lives.
Reason: Long-term finance sources, such as bond issuance and equity financing, provide funds that are suitable for financing projects and acquisitions that yield benefits over an extended period.
Choose the correct option:Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATION
Assertion (Long-term finance is typically used to fund capital expenditures and investments in assets with longer useful lives): This statement is true. Long-term finance sources, such as bonds, bank loans, and equity financing, are commonly used to finance capital expenditures and investments in assets like property, plant, and equipment (PP&E) that have longer economic lives.
Reason (Long-term finance sources provide funds suitable for financing projects and acquisitions yielding benefits over an extended period): This statement is also true and provides a correct explanation of the assertion. Long-term finance sources are chosen to match the duration and nature of the assets being financed, ensuring that the funds are available for projects or acquisitions that generate returns over a longer timeframe. Therefore, the correct answer is A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATION
Assertion (Long-term finance is typically used to fund capital expenditures and investments in assets with longer useful lives): This statement is true. Long-term finance sources, such as bonds, bank loans, and equity financing, are commonly used to finance capital expenditures and investments in assets like property, plant, and equipment (PP&E) that have longer economic lives.
Reason (Long-term finance sources provide funds suitable for financing projects and acquisitions yielding benefits over an extended period): This statement is also true and provides a correct explanation of the assertion. Long-term finance sources are chosen to match the duration and nature of the assets being financed, ensuring that the funds are available for projects or acquisitions that generate returns over a longer timeframe. Therefore, the correct answer is A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. -
Question 296 of 999CB1004369
Question 296
FlagChoose ONE correct option
Match the following:
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATION
Share Capital do not have fixed interest payments and payments are not an obligation, so option A is incorrect. Next is Share capital are also not loan of any kind so option C and D are also incorrect which leaves us with option B.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATION
Share Capital do not have fixed interest payments and payments are not an obligation, so option A is incorrect. Next is Share capital are also not loan of any kind so option C and D are also incorrect which leaves us with option B.
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Question 297 of 999CB1004370
Question 297
FlagWhich of the following is NOT a source of long-term finance for a company?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATION
A bank overdraft is a short-term financing option that allows a company to withdraw more funds than are available in its bank account, up to an approved limit. It is typically used for managing short-term cash flow needs and is not considered a long-term source of finance.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATION
A bank overdraft is a short-term financing option that allows a company to withdraw more funds than are available in its bank account, up to an approved limit. It is typically used for managing short-term cash flow needs and is not considered a long-term source of finance.
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Question 298 of 999CB1004371
Question 298
FlagWhich of the following is a characteristic of Eurobonds?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATION
Eurobonds are typically issued in bearer form, meaning the bond certificate is not registered with the issuer’s name and can be transferred by delivery. This characteristic offers anonymity and ease of transfer for investors.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATION
Eurobonds are typically issued in bearer form, meaning the bond certificate is not registered with the issuer’s name and can be transferred by delivery. This characteristic offers anonymity and ease of transfer for investors.
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Question 299 of 999CB1004372
Question 299
FlagWhich of the following ranks lowest if a company is would up?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATION
Loan Stock holders (A,B and C) are always paid before preference shareholders.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATION
Loan Stock holders (A,B and C) are always paid before preference shareholders.
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Question 300 of 999CB1004373
Question 300
FlagWhich statement best describes the characteristics of debenture loans?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATION
Interest payments are legal obligation, so they do not depend on profitability of borrowers. The holders can sue in the event of default but that is not the only remedy for debenture holders as they generally also have security of assets.
Debenture is a long-term source of annuity.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATION
Interest payments are legal obligation, so they do not depend on profitability of borrowers. The holders can sue in the event of default but that is not the only remedy for debenture holders as they generally also have security of assets.
Debenture is a long-term source of annuity. -
Question 301 of 999CB1004374
Question 301
FlagWhat does ‘crystallizing’ mean in debentures?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATION
In financial terms related to debentures, “crystallizing” refers to the process where a floating charge over the assets of a company is converted into a fixed charge. This typically occurs when the company defaults on its interest or capital payment obligations to the debenture holders. Once crystallized into a fixed charge, specific assets become secured against the debenture, giving the debenture holders priority in repayment if the company undergoes insolvency or liquidation proceedings. This process is often a legal remedy sought by debenture holders to secure their position and protect their investment in the event of default.
Once the fixed charges are ‘crystallized’, company cannot sell off or renovate ANY of the assets of the company without the permission of the debenture holders.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATION
In financial terms related to debentures, “crystallizing” refers to the process where a floating charge over the assets of a company is converted into a fixed charge. This typically occurs when the company defaults on its interest or capital payment obligations to the debenture holders. Once crystallized into a fixed charge, specific assets become secured against the debenture, giving the debenture holders priority in repayment if the company undergoes insolvency or liquidation proceedings. This process is often a legal remedy sought by debenture holders to secure their position and protect their investment in the event of default.
Once the fixed charges are ‘crystallized’, company cannot sell off or renovate ANY of the assets of the company without the permission of the debenture holders. -
Question 302 of 999CB1004375
Question 302
FlagWhich of the following is NOT true about preference shares?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATION
Preference shares typically do not carry voting rights or carry limited voting rights. Unlike ordinary shares, preference shares are often non-voting or have restricted voting rights.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATION
Preference shares typically do not carry voting rights or carry limited voting rights. Unlike ordinary shares, preference shares are often non-voting or have restricted voting rights.
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Question 303 of 999CB1004502
Question 303
FlagCompany LMN, a growing technology startup, is planning to finance its research and development for a breakthrough product. The company needs to raise additional capital and is considering two options: issuing ____________ (1) or ____________ (2) .
(1) These are long-term debt instruments issued by corporations to raise funds from investors, typically offering fixed interest payments and secured by specific assets of the company. They represent a form of borrowing for the issuing company and are considered as a form of debt capital in the company’s capital structure.
(2) represents ownership in the company and entitles those who hold this form to voting rights and dividends based on the company’s profitability. They carry higher risk but offer better potential for capital appreciation.
Based on the above case study answer the following question:
Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks (1) and (2)Correct
The correct answer is C.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
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Question 304 of 999CB1004503
Question 304
FlagCompany LMN, a growing technology startup, is planning to finance its research and development for a breakthrough product. The company needs to raise additional capital and is considering two options: issuing ____________ (1) or ____________ (2) .
(1) These are long-term debt instruments issued by corporations to raise funds from investors, typically offering fixed interest payments and secured by specific assets of the company. They represent a form of borrowing for the issuing company and are considered as a form of debt capital in the company’s capital structure.
(2) represents ownership in the company and entitles those who hold this form to voting rights and dividends based on the company’s profitability. They carry higher risk but offer better potential for capital appreciation.
Based on the above case study answer the following question:-
Which of the following highlights the potential advantage of issuing (1) compared to issuing (2) for the company’s research and development?Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONIssuing debentures provides the advantage of fixed interest payments, which can help Company ABC manage financial risk and cash flow stability, especially during economic downturns when profitability may be uncertain.
Debenture-holders have no voting rights so it helps retain voting control.
Issuing share does create long-term obligations on the company’s balance sheet.
Dividends are not tax-deductible.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONIssuing debentures provides the advantage of fixed interest payments, which can help Company ABC manage financial risk and cash flow stability, especially during economic downturns when profitability may be uncertain.
Debenture-holders have no voting rights so it helps retain voting control.
Issuing share does create long-term obligations on the company’s balance sheet.
Dividends are not tax-deductible. -
Question 305 of 999CB1004504
Question 305
FlagCompany LMN, a growing technology startup, is planning to finance its research and development for a breakthrough product. The company needs to raise additional capital and is considering two options: issuing ____________ (1) or ____________ (2) .
(1) – These are long-term debt instruments issued by corporations to raise funds from investors, typically offering fixed interest payments and secured by specific assets of the company. They represent a form of borrowing for the issuing company and are considered as a form of debt capital in the company’s capital structure.
(2) – represents ownership in the company and entitles those who hold this form to voting rights and dividends based on the company’s profitability. They carry higher risk but offer better potential for capital appreciation.What is the advantage of issuing (2) over issuing (1) in terms of ownership and control of the company?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONSelling ordinary shares can dilute ownership and voting control of existing shareholders, whereas issuing debentures does not involve dilution of ownership and control.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONSelling ordinary shares can dilute ownership and voting control of existing shareholders, whereas issuing debentures does not involve dilution of ownership and control.
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Question 306 of 999CB1004505
Question 306
FlagCompany LMN, a growing technology startup, is planning to finance its research and development for a breakthrough product. The company needs to raise additional capital and is considering two options: issuing ____________ (1) or ____________ (2) .
(1) These are long-term debt instruments issued by corporations to raise funds from investors, typically offering fixed interest payments and secured by specific assets of the company. They represent a form of borrowing for the issuing company and are considered as a form of debt capital in the company’s capital structure.(2) represents ownership in the company and entitles those who hold this form to voting rights and dividends based on the company’s profitability. They carry higher risk but offer better potential for capital appreciation.
Considering the investor perspective, which financing option is likely to appeal more to risk- averse investors seeking stable returns?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONDebentures with fixed interest payments are attractive to risk-averse investors seeking stable returns and predictable income, compared to the potentially volatile returns associated with ordinary shares or convertible bonds.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONDebentures with fixed interest payments are attractive to risk-averse investors seeking stable returns and predictable income, compared to the potentially volatile returns associated with ordinary shares or convertible bonds.
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Question 307 of 999CB1004506
Question 307
FlagCompany LMN, a growing technology startup, is planning to finance its research and development for a breakthrough product. The company needs to raise additional capital and is considering two options: issuing ____________ (1) or ____________ (2) . The company wants a financer who is there with the company through hard times and good times.
(1) These are long-term debt instruments issued by corporations to raise funds from investors, typically offering fixed interest payments and secured by specific assets of the company. They represent a form of borrowing for the issuing company and are considered as a form of debt capital in the company’s capital structure.
(2) represents ownership in the company and entitles those who hold this form to voting rights and dividends based on the company’s profitability. They carry higher risk but offer better potential for capital appreciation.Considering firm LMN’s growth trajectory and investor risk appetite, which financing option is likely to align best with the company’s long-term objectives?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONSelling ordinary shares would be suitable for Company LMN’s growth trajectory, as it can attract equity investors who are aligned with the company’s long-term growth objectives and are willing to participate in its success through ownership stakes.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONSelling ordinary shares would be suitable for Company LMN’s growth trajectory, as it can attract equity investors who are aligned with the company’s long-term growth objectives and are willing to participate in its success through ownership stakes.
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Question 308 of 999CB1004507
Question 308
FlagWhich of the following could NOT result in a company obtaining a stock exchange listing?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONRights issues are used by companies that are already listed in order to raise further capital. The other three methods are used for obtaining a listing.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONRights issues are used by companies that are already listed in order to raise further capital. The other three methods are used for obtaining a listing.
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Question 309 of 999CB1004508
Question 309
FlagWhich of the following statements accurately describes the role of underwriting in an offer for sale?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONUnderwriting involves a financial institution or underwriter committing to purchase any remaining shares that are not subscribed by investors during the offer period.
This commitment assures the issuing company that the entire offering will be successfully subscribed, mitigating the risk of undersubscription.
In exchange for this service, the underwriter typically charges a fee or commission based on the underwritten amount.
Option B is not correct as underwriters will also help the company in determining the right price for the shares, and many timesIncorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONUnderwriting involves a financial institution or underwriter committing to purchase any remaining shares that are not subscribed by investors during the offer period.
This commitment assures the issuing company that the entire offering will be successfully subscribed, mitigating the risk of undersubscription.
In exchange for this service, the underwriter typically charges a fee or commission based on the underwritten amount.
Option B is not correct as underwriters will also help the company in determining the right price for the shares, and many times -
Question 310 of 999CB1004509
Question 310
FlagA quoted company has 100 million $1.00 shares in issue that have a market price of $11.00 per share. The board plans to raise $270 million through a $9.00 rights issue in order to finance a project that has an estimated net present value of $140 million.
What is the company’s expected share price after the rights issue?Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONOriginal Market cap (in $ million)= 1100
Cash injected (in $ million)= 270
NPV (in $ million)= 140
Market cap+ new value(in $ million) = 1100+270+140=1510
Shares in issue (in $ million)= 100
In issue new shares (in million)= 270/9 =30
Total shares (in million)=130
New Share price = 1510/130 = $ 11.62Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONOriginal Market cap (in $ million)= 1100
Cash injected (in $ million)= 270
NPV (in $ million)= 140
Market cap+ new value(in $ million) = 1100+270+140=1510
Shares in issue (in $ million)= 100
In issue new shares (in million)= 270/9 =30
Total shares (in million)=130
New Share price = 1510/130 = $ 11.62 -
Question 311 of 999CB1004510
Question 311
FlagWhat advantage does a company gain from having its shares listed on a stock exchange in terms of access to capital?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONListing shares on a stock exchange provides a means for the company to access capital markets and raise funds by issuing new shares to the public through different methods. This process helps the company raise capital for expansion or investment projects.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONListing shares on a stock exchange provides a means for the company to access capital markets and raise funds by issuing new shares to the public through different methods. This process helps the company raise capital for expansion or investment projects.
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Question 312 of 999CB1004511
Question 312
FlagCompany F’s authorized share capital is 5 million £0.25 shares.
Company F’s issued share capital is 2 million shares.
The current market price per share is £0.65.
What is the maximum amount of additional equity capital that Company F can raise?Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONAuthorized Share Capital: This is the maximum number of shares a company is allowed to issue according to its Articles of Association. In this case, Company F’s authorized share capital is 5 million £0.25 shares.
Authorized share capital = Number of authorized shares × Par value per share Authorized share capital = 5,000,000 shares × £0.25 per share Authorized share capital = £1,250,000
Issued Share Capital: This is the number of shares that have been issued and allotted by the company. Here, Company F’s issued share capital is 2 million shares.
Additional shares available for issuance = Authorized share capital – Issued share capital Additional shares available for issuance = £1,250,000 – (2,000,000 shares × £0.25 per share) Additional shares available for issuance = £1,250,000 – £500,000 = £750,000
Maximum Additional Equity Capital: Now, calculate the maximum amount of equity capital that can be raised by issuing the additional shares at the current market price per share.
Maximum additional equity capital = Number of additional shares × Current market price per share Maximum additional equity capital = (£750,000 / £0.25 per share) × £0.65 per share= £1,950,000
Therefore, the maximum amount of additional equity capital that Company F can raise is £1,950,000.
It is not logical for company to issue shares at a price higher than £0.65 per share, this is because no investor will pay more for a share which already is available in the market.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONAuthorized Share Capital: This is the maximum number of shares a company is allowed to issue according to its Articles of Association. In this case, Company F’s authorized share capital is 5 million £0.25 shares.
Authorized share capital = Number of authorized shares × Par value per share Authorized share capital = 5,000,000 shares × £0.25 per share Authorized share capital = £1,250,000
Issued Share Capital: This is the number of shares that have been issued and allotted by the company. Here, Company F’s issued share capital is 2 million shares.
Additional shares available for issuance = Authorized share capital – Issued share capital Additional shares available for issuance = £1,250,000 – (2,000,000 shares × £0.25 per share) Additional shares available for issuance = £1,250,000 – £500,000 = £750,000
Maximum Additional Equity Capital: Now, calculate the maximum amount of equity capital that can be raised by issuing the additional shares at the current market price per share.
Maximum additional equity capital = Number of additional shares × Current market price per share Maximum additional equity capital = (£750,000 / £0.25 per share) × £0.65 per share= £1,950,000
Therefore, the maximum amount of additional equity capital that Company F can raise is £1,950,000.
It is not logical for company to issue shares at a price higher than £0.65 per share, this is because no investor will pay more for a share which already is available in the market. -
Question 313 of 999CB1004512
Question 313
FlagWhat is a potential advantage of remaining a private company rather than becoming a public company?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONRemaining a private company allows the owners (shareholders) to maintain greater control over company operations and decision-making processes compared to public companies, where decision-making can be influenced by a larger number of shareholders and regulatory requirements.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONRemaining a private company allows the owners (shareholders) to maintain greater control over company operations and decision-making processes compared to public companies, where decision-making can be influenced by a larger number of shareholders and regulatory requirements.
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Question 314 of 999CB1004513
Question 314
FlagChoose the correct option
Match the following:Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONAll of the corresponding descriptions are the definition of the method of obtaining a stock exchange quotation.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONAll of the corresponding descriptions are the definition of the method of obtaining a stock exchange quotation.
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Question 315 of 999CB1004514
Question 315
FlagA company has 10 million shares in issue. The company’s share price is $4 per share. The directors are considering a one for five rights issue at $3.50 per share. Issue costs have been estimated at $800,000.
Calculate the expected share price after the rights issue
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONThe company is proposing a one for five rights issue, which means shareholders will receive one new share for every five shares held.
Total number of new shares to be issued = (10 million shares) / 5 = 2 million new shares.
Total amount raised from the rights issue = Number of new shares issued × Issue price per share Total amount raised = 2 million new shares × $3.50 per share = $7 million.
Net amount raised after deducting issue costs = Total amount raised – Issue costs Net amount raised = $7 million – $800,000 = $6.2 million.Total number of shares after the rights issue = Existing shares + New shares issued Total shares after the rights issue = 10 million shares + 2 million new shares = 12 million shares.
The theoretical ex-rights price is calculated as follows:
TERP = (Total market value before rights issue + Total amount raised from rights issue) / Total number of shares after rights issue
Total market value before rights issue = Number of existing shares × Current share price Total market value before rights issue = 10 million shares × $4 per share = $40 million.
TERP = ($40 million + $6.2 million) / 12 million shares TERP = $46.2 million / 12 million shares TERP = $3.85 per share.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONThe company is proposing a one for five rights issue, which means shareholders will receive one new share for every five shares held.
Total number of new shares to be issued = (10 million shares) / 5 = 2 million new shares.
Total amount raised from the rights issue = Number of new shares issued × Issue price per share Total amount raised = 2 million new shares × $3.50 per share = $7 million.
Net amount raised after deducting issue costs = Total amount raised – Issue costs Net amount raised = $7 million – $800,000 = $6.2 million.Total number of shares after the rights issue = Existing shares + New shares issued Total shares after the rights issue = 10 million shares + 2 million new shares = 12 million shares.
The theoretical ex-rights price is calculated as follows:
TERP = (Total market value before rights issue + Total amount raised from rights issue) / Total number of shares after rights issue
Total market value before rights issue = Number of existing shares × Current share price Total market value before rights issue = 10 million shares × $4 per share = $40 million.
TERP = ($40 million + $6.2 million) / 12 million shares TERP = $46.2 million / 12 million shares TERP = $3.85 per share. -
Question 316 of 999CB1004515
Question 316
FlagWhich of the following statements is NOT true about credit sales?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONCredit sales are not recorded as revenue on the income statement at the time of sale. Revenue recognition for credit sales follows specific accounting principles, typically recognized when goods or services are delivered, not necessarily when payment is received.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONCredit sales are not recorded as revenue on the income statement at the time of sale. Revenue recognition for credit sales follows specific accounting principles, typically recognized when goods or services are delivered, not necessarily when payment is received.
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Question 317 of 999CB1004625
Question 317
FlagWhat is a key criterion for classifying a lease as a finance lease rather than an operating lease?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONIf the present value of lease payments is equal to or greater than the fair value of the leased asset at the start of the lease, it indicates that the lessee is essentially financing the acquisition of the asset through lease payments. This suggests that the risks and rewards associated with ownership have effectively been transferred to the lessee, making it appropriate to classify the lease as a finance lease.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONIf the present value of lease payments is equal to or greater than the fair value of the leased asset at the start of the lease, it indicates that the lessee is essentially financing the acquisition of the asset through lease payments. This suggests that the risks and rewards associated with ownership have effectively been transferred to the lessee, making it appropriate to classify the lease as a finance lease.
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Question 318 of 999CB1004626
Question 318
FlagWhich of the following statements is true regarding a bank overdraft?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONA bank overdraft is a short-term borrowing arrangement where a bank allows the borrower to withdraw more funds from their account than are available. It is often used to cover short-term cash flow needs. The amount overdrawn is recorded as a liability on the borrower’s balance sheet under current liabilities.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONA bank overdraft is a short-term borrowing arrangement where a bank allows the borrower to withdraw more funds from their account than are available. It is often used to cover short-term cash flow needs. The amount overdrawn is recorded as a liability on the borrower’s balance sheet under current liabilities.
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Question 319 of 999CB1004627
Question 319
FlagWhich of the following is a potential advantage of non-recourse factoring for the seller?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONOne of the advantages of non-recourse factoring for the seller is the assurance of protection against bad debts and customer defaults. The factor assumes the credit risk, providing a level of financial security to the seller.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONOne of the advantages of non-recourse factoring for the seller is the assurance of protection against bad debts and customer defaults. The factor assumes the credit risk, providing a level of financial security to the seller.
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Question 320 of 999CB1004628
Question 320
FlagWhich of the following actions can the payee take with a bill of exchange to receive immediate payment?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONThe payee can obtain immediate payment for a bill of exchange by discounting it with a financial institution, which buys the bill at a discounted rate based on the remaining term until maturity.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONThe payee can obtain immediate payment for a bill of exchange by discounting it with a financial institution, which buys the bill at a discounted rate based on the remaining term until maturity.
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Question 321 of 999CB1004629
Question 321
FlagWhich aspect highlights an advantage of traditional banks over shadow banking in terms of risk management?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONTraditional banks typically have established risk management frameworks, including stringent credit risk assessment and monitoring practices, to mitigate risks associated with lending and investment activities.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONTraditional banks typically have established risk management frameworks, including stringent credit risk assessment and monitoring practices, to mitigate risks associated with lending and investment activities.
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Question 322 of 999CB1004630
Question 322
FlagEmma is a small business owner looking to secure £30,000 to expand her bakery business by purchasing new equipment and renovating her premises. She is exploring different financing options and considering crowdfunding and peer-to-peer (P2P) lending.
Crowdfunding:
Emma plans to create a crowdfunding campaign to raise funds from supporters and customers.
She intends to offer rewards such as exclusive bakery items, discounts, or special events to bakers.
Crowdfunding will help engage her community and generate buzz for her bakery expansion.
Peer-to-Peer (P2P) Lending:
Emma can apply for a P2P loan through an online lending platform.
P2P lending offers a straightforward loan arrangement with fixed monthly payments based on her creditworthiness.
The loan terms can be customized to suit Emma’s financial needs and repayment capabilities.
Considering Emma’s need for £30,000 to expand her bakery business, which alternate source of finance (crowdfunding or P2P lending) would you recommend for her?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONCrowdfunding: This option would be suitable if Emma wants to engage her local community and loyal customers in supporting her bakery expansion. Crowdfunding can help create excitement and generate pre-sales through exclusive rewards.
Peer-to-Peer (P2P) Lending: P2P lending could be a good choice if Emma prefers a more traditional financing method with fixed monthly payments. The loan terms can be tailored based on her credit profile, providing flexibility and control over repayment.
Ultimately, the choice between crowdfunding and P2P lending would depend on Emma’s preferences, business strategy, and engagement goals. Both options offer unique benefits and considerations, making them viable alternatives for financing Emma’s bakery expansion project.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONCrowdfunding: This option would be suitable if Emma wants to engage her local community and loyal customers in supporting her bakery expansion. Crowdfunding can help create excitement and generate pre-sales through exclusive rewards.
Peer-to-Peer (P2P) Lending: P2P lending could be a good choice if Emma prefers a more traditional financing method with fixed monthly payments. The loan terms can be tailored based on her credit profile, providing flexibility and control over repayment.
Ultimately, the choice between crowdfunding and P2P lending would depend on Emma’s preferences, business strategy, and engagement goals. Both options offer unique benefits and considerations, making them viable alternatives for financing Emma’s bakery expansion project.
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Question 323 of 999CB1004632
Question 323
FlagWhich of the following projects would be most suitable for financing through a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV)?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONDeveloping a renewable energy project, such as a solar power plant, would be most suitable for financing through a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV). SPVs are commonly used in infrastructure and energy projects to pool and isolate project-related assets and liabilities, facilitating financing, risk management, and investor participation.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONDeveloping a renewable energy project, such as a solar power plant, would be most suitable for financing through a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV). SPVs are commonly used in infrastructure and energy projects to pool and isolate project-related assets and liabilities, facilitating financing, risk management, and investor participation.
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Question 324 of 999CB1004633
Question 324
FlagCompany U’s home currency is GBP.
It has a large receivable in USD that is due for payment in six(6) months.
Which is the best choice for minimizing risk to the company associated with GBP/USD risk?Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONCurrency futures are contracts to buy or sell a currency at a predetermined price on a future date. They can hedge against exchange rate risk and they require committing to a specific rate which can minimize the risk for the company for unforeseen movements in the exchange rate.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONCurrency futures are contracts to buy or sell a currency at a predetermined price on a future date. They can hedge against exchange rate risk and they require committing to a specific rate which can minimize the risk for the company for unforeseen movements in the exchange rate.
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Question 325 of 999CB1004634
Question 325
FlagA call option is:
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONCall option gives the ‘right’ but not an obligation to the holder to buy the underlying security at a specified price on a specified date.
Option A is put option.
Option B is a long forward contract.
Option D is a short forward contract.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONCall option gives the ‘right’ but not an obligation to the holder to buy the underlying security at a specified price on a specified date.
Option A is put option.
Option B is a long forward contract.
Option D is a short forward contract. -
Question 326 of 999CB1004635
Question 326
FlagChoose ONE correct option by analyzing the statements below:
I : Currency swaps involve the exchange of both principal and interest payments in different currencies
II : Currency swaps are typically customized agreements between counterparties.
III : Currency swaps can be used to hedge against interest rate risk.
IV :Currency swaps are standardized contracts traded on organized exchanges.Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONUnlike currency futures or options, currency swaps are not standardized contracts traded on organized exchanges. Instead, they are over-the-counter (OTC) instruments that are individually negotiated and structured based on the specific requirements of the counterparties.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONUnlike currency futures or options, currency swaps are not standardized contracts traded on organized exchanges. Instead, they are over-the-counter (OTC) instruments that are individually negotiated and structured based on the specific requirements of the counterparties.
-
Question 327 of 999CB1004636
Question 327
FlagChoose ONE correct option
Assertion: Futures contracts require initial margin deposits to mitigate counterparty credit risk and ensure performance of contractual obligations.
Reason: Initial margin requirements for futures contracts help protect against potential losses arising from adverse price movements in the underlying assets.Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONAssertion Justification:
True: Futures contracts are standardized agreements traded on organized exchanges. To participate in futures trading, market participants are required to deposit an initial margin. This margin acts as a security deposit and serves multiple purposes, including mitigating counterparty credit risk (ensuring that each party fulfills its obligations) and providing a financial cushion against potential losses.Reason Justification:
True: The primary purpose of initial margin requirements in futures contracts is to manage and minimize the risk of default resulting from adverse price movements. By requiring participants to maintain an initial margin, exchanges ensure that traders have sufficient funds to cover potential losses that may occur if the market moves against their positions.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONAssertion Justification:
True: Futures contracts are standardized agreements traded on organized exchanges. To participate in futures trading, market participants are required to deposit an initial margin. This margin acts as a security deposit and serves multiple purposes, including mitigating counterparty credit risk (ensuring that each party fulfills its obligations) and providing a financial cushion against potential losses.Reason Justification:
True: The primary purpose of initial margin requirements in futures contracts is to manage and minimize the risk of default resulting from adverse price movements. By requiring participants to maintain an initial margin, exchanges ensure that traders have sufficient funds to cover potential losses that may occur if the market moves against their positions. -
Question 328 of 999CB1004637
Question 328
FlagWhich of the following is a possible reason to enter into an interest rate swap?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONManaging interest rate exposure: This is the correct reason for entering into an interest rate swap. Organizations use interest rate swaps to modify their interest rate profiles, converting between fixed and floating interest rates to mitigate interest rate risk.
Other options are unrelated to interest rate swapsIncorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONManaging interest rate exposure: This is the correct reason for entering into an interest rate swap. Organizations use interest rate swaps to modify their interest rate profiles, converting between fixed and floating interest rates to mitigate interest rate risk.
Other options are unrelated to interest rate swaps -
Question 329 of 999CB1004638
Question 329
FlagWhich of the following describes a key difference between futures and forwards?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONFutures contracts are traded on organized exchanges, while forwards are customized agreements traded over-the-counter (OTC): This choice accurately describes a key difference between futures and forwards. Futures contracts are standardized and traded on regulated exchanges, providing liquidity and transparency. In contrast, forwards are private agreements negotiated directly between counterparties, allowing for customized terms and flexibility.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONFutures contracts are traded on organized exchanges, while forwards are customized agreements traded over-the-counter (OTC): This choice accurately describes a key difference between futures and forwards. Futures contracts are standardized and traded on regulated exchanges, providing liquidity and transparency. In contrast, forwards are private agreements negotiated directly between counterparties, allowing for customized terms and flexibility.
-
Question 330 of 999CB1004959
Question 330
FlagA business made a loss during the financial year just ended but has more cash at the end of the year than it did at the beginning. Which of the following could be a reason for this?
Correct
The correct option is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because if dividends were paid less in the current year then the cash at the end would have been less in the end.
Option B selling fixed assets would have increased the cash balance.
Option C is incorrect because if debtors took longer to pay than last then cash balance at the end would have been less than what is at the start, assuming all the other operations of the company were same as last year.
Option D is incorrect because then cash balance at the end would have been lesser than the cash balance at the start, again all the other operations of the company were same as last year.Incorrect
The correct option is B.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because if dividends were paid less in the current year then the cash at the end would have been less in the end.
Option B selling fixed assets would have increased the cash balance.
Option C is incorrect because if debtors took longer to pay than last then cash balance at the end would have been less than what is at the start, assuming all the other operations of the company were same as last year.
Option D is incorrect because then cash balance at the end would have been lesser than the cash balance at the start, again all the other operations of the company were same as last year. -
Question 331 of 999CB1004960
Question 331
FlagA company expects to have net current liabilities at the financial year end. Raising funds by taking out a short term loan would:
Correct
Answer = Option A
Explanation:
Question says that companies have net current liabilities at the end of the year, which implies that current liabilities would be more than the current assets at the end of the year.
Assuming current ratio = 80000/100000 = 0.8:1 at the end of the year.
Let’s say company takes out a loan of 5000.
Then the new current ratio would be:
New current ratio = 85000/105000 = 0.81:1
So, there would be an increase in current ratio.Incorrect
Answer = Option A
Explanation:
Question says that companies have net current liabilities at the end of the year, which implies that current liabilities would be more than the current assets at the end of the year.
Assuming current ratio = 80000/100000 = 0.8:1 at the end of the year.
Let’s say company takes out a loan of 5000.
Then the new current ratio would be:
New current ratio = 85000/105000 = 0.81:1
So, there would be an increase in current ratio. -
Question 332 of 999CB1004961
Question 332
FlagSales revenue should be recognized when goods and services have been supplied; costs are incurred when goods and services have been received.
The accounting concept which governs the above is the:Correct
Answer = C
Explanation:
Accruals concept says to recognize expenses as and when they are incurred irrespective of whether it is paid or not.
Realization concept says to recognize income as and when they are earned irrespective of whether it is received or not.Incorrect
Answer = C
Explanation:
Accruals concept says to recognize expenses as and when they are incurred irrespective of whether it is paid or not.
Realization concept says to recognize income as and when they are earned irrespective of whether it is received or not. -
Question 333 of 999CB1004963
Question 333
FlagA bond has a value of $£ 1,000$ printed on its face. Its current open market value is $£ 980$. Analysts expect the value of the bond to rise to $£ 985$ within the next seven days. In your personal opinion it will rise to $£ 982$. What is the nominal value of this bond?
Correct
Answer = Option D
Explanation:
Nominal value of the bond is the value printed on the bond.
Trading value of the bond is the value at which the bond is being sold and purchased in the market.
The other two values are expected value of the bond.Incorrect
Answer = Option D
Explanation:
Nominal value of the bond is the value printed on the bond.
Trading value of the bond is the value at which the bond is being sold and purchased in the market.
The other two values are expected value of the bond. -
Question 334 of 999CB1004964
Question 334
FlagPreference shares are often thought of as being more like debt than equity. Which of the following best explains this?
Correct
Answer = Option C
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because tax treatment of dividends paid to preference shareholder is same as that of equity shareholders.
Option B is incorrect because equity shares can be bought and sold as well.
Option C is correct because dividends paid to preference shareholders is fixed like that of debt holders, in the year in which company makes higher profit they would not be paid higher dividends.
Option D is incorrect because it is possible to make capital gain or losses on equity shares as well.Incorrect
Answer = Option C
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because tax treatment of dividends paid to preference shareholder is same as that of equity shareholders.
Option B is incorrect because equity shares can be bought and sold as well.
Option C is correct because dividends paid to preference shareholders is fixed like that of debt holders, in the year in which company makes higher profit they would not be paid higher dividends.
Option D is incorrect because it is possible to make capital gain or losses on equity shares as well. -
Question 335 of 999CB1004966
Question 335
FlagA business has decided to acquire a specialized piece of machinery using a finance lease. A bank has agreed to buy the asset on the business’ behalf and will lease the asset for the whole of its useful life. When will the asset become the property of the business?
Correct
Answer = Option D
Explanation:
In a lease, finance or operating, the asset will remain the property of the lesser unless they is an explicit arrangement between the two parties which transfers the asset to the lessee.
In case of finance lease the risk of ownership of the asset is transferred to the lessor the ownership of the asset is still with the lessor.
This basically means that if assets get broken down in the middle of the term then lessee cannot claim that I will not pay make any more lease payments they would still have to make the lease payments, if not made then the lessor has the right to take back the asset.Incorrect
Answer = Option D
Explanation:
In a lease, finance or operating, the asset will remain the property of the lesser unless they is an explicit arrangement between the two parties which transfers the asset to the lessee.
In case of finance lease the risk of ownership of the asset is transferred to the lessor the ownership of the asset is still with the lessor.
This basically means that if assets get broken down in the middle of the term then lessee cannot claim that I will not pay make any more lease payments they would still have to make the lease payments, if not made then the lessor has the right to take back the asset. -
Question 336 of 999CB1004967
Question 336
FlagA company has $500,000 £ 1.00$ ordinary shares in issue. The current market price is $£ 1.80$. The company will make a rights issue later today, issuing 50,000 new shares at a price of $£ 1.50$. What is the theoretical ex-rights price of the company’s shares?
Correct
Answer = Option C
Explanation:
Theoretical ex-right price = 500000/(500000+50000)$\times$1.80 + 50000/(500000+50000)$\times$1.50 = $£ 1.77$Incorrect
Answer = Option C
Explanation:
Theoretical ex-right price = 500000/(500000+50000)$\times$1.80 + 50000/(500000+50000)$\times$1.50 = $£ 1.77$ -
Question 337 of 999CB1004968
Question 337
FlagWhich of the following best describes the purpose of the depreciation charge?
Correct
Answer = Option C
Explanation:
Depreciation charged on the asset is not made to reflect the market values. It is done to reflect that value of the asset has decreased over the year because of its use by the company or due to its obsolescence or due to its wear and tear.Incorrect
Answer = Option C
Explanation:
Depreciation charged on the asset is not made to reflect the market values. It is done to reflect that value of the asset has decreased over the year because of its use by the company or due to its obsolescence or due to its wear and tear. -
Question 338 of 999CB1004970
Question 338
FlagWhich of the following best describes the purpose of the cash flow statement?
Correct
Answer = Option D.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect for that we can simply just see the balance sheet of the company.
Option B is incorrect because cash flow statement shows cash that was used or generated from operating, financing and other activities of the business.
Option C is incorrect because that is not the purpose of the cash flow statement.
Option D is correct because the purpose of cashflow statement is to show that operating activities of the company, that is basic sales and purchase of the company, is generating cash for the company. It is also a statement which reflects how the cash raised by the company during the year or previously was utilized.Incorrect
Answer = Option D.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect for that we can simply just see the balance sheet of the company.
Option B is incorrect because cash flow statement shows cash that was used or generated from operating, financing and other activities of the business.
Option C is incorrect because that is not the purpose of the cash flow statement.
Option D is correct because the purpose of cashflow statement is to show that operating activities of the company, that is basic sales and purchase of the company, is generating cash for the company. It is also a statement which reflects how the cash raised by the company during the year or previously was utilized. -
Question 339 of 999CB1004973
Question 339
FlagAn investor sold a holding of a stock with the intention of buying an identical holding of the same stock a few weeks later at roughly the same price. What possibility best explains the likely reason for this behavior?
Correct
Answer = Option B
Explanation:
It is possible that investor had some tax allowance leftover, so to utilize that he sold the stock and realized the capital gain, this way investor would not have to pay any tax on that capital gain or pay less than what he would have paid otherwise.Incorrect
Answer = Option B
Explanation:
It is possible that investor had some tax allowance leftover, so to utilize that he sold the stock and realized the capital gain, this way investor would not have to pay any tax on that capital gain or pay less than what he would have paid otherwise. -
Question 340 of 999CB1004978
Question 340
FlagWhich of the following is NOT true of the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) method of project appraisal?
Correct
Answer = Option D
Explanation:
Option A is true IRR can have multiple or no solutions at all.
Option B is true, since the above option is true NPV is more popular method of project evaluation as compared to IRR.
Option C is true, as IRR does give us the return which is achieved by undertaking the project.
Option D is not true, as IRR does not take riskiness of the project into consideration so it is not an appropriate method to be used to compare two mutually exclusive projects.Incorrect
Answer = Option D
Explanation:
Option A is true IRR can have multiple or no solutions at all.
Option B is true, since the above option is true NPV is more popular method of project evaluation as compared to IRR.
Option C is true, as IRR does give us the return which is achieved by undertaking the project.
Option D is not true, as IRR does not take riskiness of the project into consideration so it is not an appropriate method to be used to compare two mutually exclusive projects. -
Question 341 of 999CB1004979
Question 341
FlagYou have a diversified portfolio. You are offered an opportunity to invest in an oil exploration venture in the South Atlantic. Which of the following risks associated with this project is a systematic risk?
Correct
Answer = Option D
Explanation:
Option A, B and C will only affect the new investment, whereas option D will affect all the investments in my portfolio so that would be considered as a systematic risk.Incorrect
Answer = Option D
Explanation:
Option A, B and C will only affect the new investment, whereas option D will affect all the investments in my portfolio so that would be considered as a systematic risk. -
Question 342 of 999CB1004980
Question 342
FlagDuring the year ended 30 September 2002 a company bought a fixed asset for $£ 125,000$. The company charges depreciation at the rate of $20 \%$ per annum on the reducing balance basis, with a full year’s depreciation in the year of acquisition and none in the year of disposal. During the year ended 30 September 2005 the asset was sold for $£ 45,000$.
What was the loss on sale of the asset?
Correct
Answer = Option C
Explanation:
Value of fixed asset on 30 September 2003 = 125000$\times$0.8 = 100,000 pounds.
Value of fixed asset on 30 September 2004 = 100000$\times$0.8 = 80,000 pounds.
Value of fixed asset on 30 September 2005 = 80000$\times$0.8 = 64,000 pounds.
Loss on sale of the asset = 64000 – 45000 = 19,000 pounds.Incorrect
Answer = Option C
Explanation:
Value of fixed asset on 30 September 2003 = 125000$\times$0.8 = 100,000 pounds.
Value of fixed asset on 30 September 2004 = 100000$\times$0.8 = 80,000 pounds.
Value of fixed asset on 30 September 2005 = 80000$\times$0.8 = 64,000 pounds.
Loss on sale of the asset = 64000 – 45000 = 19,000 pounds. -
Question 343 of 999CB1004981
Question 343
FlagThe purchase of a business for more than the aggregate of the fair value of its separate identifiable assets less liabilities results in the creation of a:
Correct
Answer = Option D
Explanation:
If a business was acquired for a purchase consideration which is more than the difference between its asset and liabilities than it was purchased at a ‘premium’ or ‘goodwill’ was paid for it.
This payment was made for the brand name, customers and loyal workforce of the business.
So the excess amount would be transferred to the goodwill account.Incorrect
Answer = Option D
Explanation:
If a business was acquired for a purchase consideration which is more than the difference between its asset and liabilities than it was purchased at a ‘premium’ or ‘goodwill’ was paid for it.
This payment was made for the brand name, customers and loyal workforce of the business.
So the excess amount would be transferred to the goodwill account. -
Question 344 of 999CB1004982
Question 344
FlagQ Ltd has a stock turnover of 40 days, debtors’ turnover of 45 days and creditors’ turnover of 47 days. How long, on average, does each $£ 1$ invested in working capital stay tied up?
Correct
Answer = Option A
Explanation:
Working capital turnover period = Stock turnover + Debtors’ turnover – Creditors’ turnover = 40+45-47 = 38 days.Incorrect
Answer = Option A
Explanation:
Working capital turnover period = Stock turnover + Debtors’ turnover – Creditors’ turnover = 40+45-47 = 38 days. -
Question 345 of 999CB1004983
Question 345
FlagWhich of the following is NOT a valid ratio for the calculation of return on capital employed?
Correct
Answer = Option C
Explanation:
Option A is correct and the familiar formula for the calculation of ROCE.
Option B is also correct formula for ROCE, this is because in the denominator long-term debt was not taken into consideration and interest was also not taken into consideration in the numerator so the formula is consistent.
Option C is incorrect because this formula is inconsistent, if you are taking long-term debt in the denominator you also need to take interest in the numerator.
Option D is also correct.Incorrect
Answer = Option C
Explanation:
Option A is correct and the familiar formula for the calculation of ROCE.
Option B is also correct formula for ROCE, this is because in the denominator long-term debt was not taken into consideration and interest was also not taken into consideration in the numerator so the formula is consistent.
Option C is incorrect because this formula is inconsistent, if you are taking long-term debt in the denominator you also need to take interest in the numerator.
Option D is also correct. -
Question 346 of 999CB1004984
Question 346
FlagA company has had a substantial overdraft for several years. When is this loan likely to become repayable in full?
Correct
Answer = Option B
Explanation:
There is no fixed repayment period for overdraft facility.
It can be called anytime by the bank, so it is as the bank’s discretion.Incorrect
Answer = Option B
Explanation:
There is no fixed repayment period for overdraft facility.
It can be called anytime by the bank, so it is as the bank’s discretion. -
Question 347 of 999CB1004996
Question 347
FlagA project has an internal rate of return of $12 \%$. It has a positive net present value at $10 \%$. The project will be funded by means of the issue of loan stock, which has already been arranged and to which the company is committed. The finance raised from the loan stock issue will cost $8 \%$ per annum. If the company does not invest in the project then it will invest the proceeds in a financial instrument which carries a rate of return of $6 \%$ per annum. What is the opportunity cost of investing in this project?
Correct
Answer= Option A
Explanation:
By investing in this project the company is sacrificing the alternative of investing in the financial instrument which would have provided the company with a rate of return of 6% per annum. So 6% is the opportunity cost of investing in this project.Incorrect
Answer= Option A
Explanation:
By investing in this project the company is sacrificing the alternative of investing in the financial instrument which would have provided the company with a rate of return of 6% per annum. So 6% is the opportunity cost of investing in this project. -
Question 348 of 999CB1004997
Question 348
FlagWhich of the following is the best measure of the cost of retained profits in a business?
Correct
Answer = Option C
Explanation:
Retained earnings are made out of profit.
And, profit belongs to equity shareholders. It is them who will choose whether to retain back the profits or distribute it as dividends, if they choose to retain back the profits it is known as retained earnings in the financial statements.
So, the cost of retained earnings is the cost of equity.Incorrect
Answer = Option C
Explanation:
Retained earnings are made out of profit.
And, profit belongs to equity shareholders. It is them who will choose whether to retain back the profits or distribute it as dividends, if they choose to retain back the profits it is known as retained earnings in the financial statements.
So, the cost of retained earnings is the cost of equity. -
Question 349 of 999CB1004998
Question 349
FlagWhich of the following is the most correct summary of the reasons behind Modigliani and Miller’s argument that capital markets are indifferent to a company’s financial structure?
Correct
Answer = Option B
Explanation:
If the shareholders feel that the gearing is too high they have either of the two option, first is to repay some of the debt or to raise some more equity, both of which can be done at a minimal cost for a reputed company.
All the other options are against the theory of Modigliani and Miller.Incorrect
Answer = Option B
Explanation:
If the shareholders feel that the gearing is too high they have either of the two option, first is to repay some of the debt or to raise some more equity, both of which can be done at a minimal cost for a reputed company.
All the other options are against the theory of Modigliani and Miller. -
Question 350 of 999CB1004999
Question 350
FlagWhich of the following is an economically sound reason for a company to enter into a share repurchase?
Correct
Answer = Option B
Explanation:
Share repurchase will increase the share price of the company which will provide the shareholders with capital gain, and there would be capital gain allowance which the shareholders can use to reduce their tax liability. If the company provides the shareholders with dividend they would have to pay tax on that. So going with share repurchase is efficient from tax point of view.
Share repurchase is not a sign of confidence, it rather shows that company is not able to find projects which can provide them with desired rate of return, so they are returning shareholders’ money.
Option D is incorrect because share repurchase is not simpler than providing the dividends, as it can cause shareholders to ask why is that company is not able to find any project worthy enough to invest their money in, is it that industry is saturated? And there is no more scope for growth?Incorrect
Answer = Option B
Explanation:
Share repurchase will increase the share price of the company which will provide the shareholders with capital gain, and there would be capital gain allowance which the shareholders can use to reduce their tax liability. If the company provides the shareholders with dividend they would have to pay tax on that. So going with share repurchase is efficient from tax point of view.
Share repurchase is not a sign of confidence, it rather shows that company is not able to find projects which can provide them with desired rate of return, so they are returning shareholders’ money.
Option D is incorrect because share repurchase is not simpler than providing the dividends, as it can cause shareholders to ask why is that company is not able to find any project worthy enough to invest their money in, is it that industry is saturated? And there is no more scope for growth? -
Question 351 of 999CB1005000
Question 351
FlagWhich of the following is the most appropriate basis for determining the required rate of return on a major project being considered by a quoted company?
Correct
Answer = Option D
Explanation:
Quoted company in general take on a lot of projects which diversify away their specific risk from one single project, so the required rate of return from a project should be set keeping in mind the systematic risk of the project.Incorrect
Answer = Option D
Explanation:
Quoted company in general take on a lot of projects which diversify away their specific risk from one single project, so the required rate of return from a project should be set keeping in mind the systematic risk of the project. -
Question 352 of 999CB1005002
Question 352
FlagAn external auditor is preparing the audit report on a company’s financial statements. The auditor believes that the financial statements are potentially misleading unless readers pay close attention to one of the notes to the accounts. Which form of audit report is likely to be most appropriate in these circumstances?
Correct
Answer = Option B
Explanation:
If the auditors feel that shareholders should pay close to attention on one of the notes to account, then giving a completely qualified or adverse opinion does not seem fair, so an appropriate opinion would be to give “qualified opinion with emphasis on matter paragraph”.Incorrect
Answer = Option B
Explanation:
If the auditors feel that shareholders should pay close to attention on one of the notes to account, then giving a completely qualified or adverse opinion does not seem fair, so an appropriate opinion would be to give “qualified opinion with emphasis on matter paragraph”. -
Question 353 of 999CB1005009
Question 353
FlagWhich of the following is true of limited liability partnerships (LLPs) in the UK?
Correct
Answer = Option C
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because LLP firms do have separate legal identity from its members.
Option B is incorrect because LLP firms are taxed as partnership firms and not as companies.
Option C is correct because they are profit seeking ventures.
Option D is incorrect because members have limited liability.
Incorrect
Answer = Option C
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because LLP firms do have separate legal identity from its members.
Option B is incorrect because LLP firms are taxed as partnership firms and not as companies.
Option C is correct because they are profit seeking ventures.
Option D is incorrect because members have limited liability.
-
Question 354 of 999CB1005011
Question 354
FlagWho bears the responsibility for the preparation of a company’s financial statements?
Correct
The correct option is C.
Explanation
Ultimately the responsibility of the financial statements are with the board of directors.
External auditors are only responsible to verify that statements prepared represent true and fair view of the company.Incorrect
The correct option is C.
Explanation
Ultimately the responsibility of the financial statements are with the board of directors.
External auditors are only responsible to verify that statements prepared represent true and fair view of the company. -
Question 355 of 999CB1005013
Question 355
FlagWhich of the following would NOT be removed from the calculation of a UK company’s accounting profits in order to arrive at the taxable profit for corporation tax purposes?
Correct
The correct option is A.
ExplanationIt is not possible to remove overseas income from the calculation of taxable liability for a company.
Franked income, entertainment cost and depreciation can be removed from the calculation of taxable liability.Incorrect
The correct option is A.
ExplanationIt is not possible to remove overseas income from the calculation of taxable liability for a company.
Franked income, entertainment cost and depreciation can be removed from the calculation of taxable liability. -
Question 356 of 999CB1005014
Question 356
FlagFinance theory suggests that individuals who own shares often find the tax treatment of capital gains on shares preferable to the tax treatment of a dividend of the same amount. Which of the following is NOT a potential reason for this preference?
Correct
The correct option is C.
ExplanationIn today’s day and time it is very easy to find out overseas income for anyone, so that is not a potential reason for this preference.
Incorrect
The correct option is C.
ExplanationIn today’s day and time it is very easy to find out overseas income for anyone, so that is not a potential reason for this preference.
-
Question 357 of 999CB1005018
Question 357
FlagA company has a low current ratio. Which of the following would best explain why
this is not a matter for concern?Correct
The correct option is D.
Explanation
Option A is incorrect because even if shareholders are interested in profit even then they would worry about the continuity of the business, if the business does not survive in the long run they there would be no profit. So it would be a matter of concern for them.
Option B is incorrect because if current ratio was high in the previous years and now it is low then it would have been a matter of concern.
Option C is incorrect because a company cannot have a good credit rating and a poor current ratio.
Option D is correct because if the industry norm or the company norm is to have a low current ratio, then it would only have those shareholders and creditors to begin with who are okay with such low current ratio.Incorrect
The correct option is D.
Explanation
Option A is incorrect because even if shareholders are interested in profit even then they would worry about the continuity of the business, if the business does not survive in the long run they there would be no profit. So it would be a matter of concern for them.
Option B is incorrect because if current ratio was high in the previous years and now it is low then it would have been a matter of concern.
Option C is incorrect because a company cannot have a good credit rating and a poor current ratio.
Option D is correct because if the industry norm or the company norm is to have a low current ratio, then it would only have those shareholders and creditors to begin with who are okay with such low current ratio. -
Question 358 of 999CB1005019
Question 358
FlagWhich of the following would explain the need to publish a figure for diluted earnings
per share?Correct
The correct option is B.
Explanation
Diluted earnings per share gives a more transparent representation of earnings per share that the shareholders will earn. It assumes that all the convertibles that were issued by the company will convert to equity shares, which will then dilute the earnings per share. It also highlights all the convertibles that was issued by the company. A huge difference between diluted EPS and basic EPS would indicate that company has a lot of convertible debt and share warrants in issue.
Incorrect
The correct option is B.
Explanation
Diluted earnings per share gives a more transparent representation of earnings per share that the shareholders will earn. It assumes that all the convertibles that were issued by the company will convert to equity shares, which will then dilute the earnings per share. It also highlights all the convertibles that was issued by the company. A huge difference between diluted EPS and basic EPS would indicate that company has a lot of convertible debt and share warrants in issue.
-
Question 359 of 999CB1005020
Question 359
FlagA company’s operating profit was £2.5m. Interest paid was £0.3m. Tax was £0.6m. Dividends paid were £1.4m. The company is financed by £10.0m of ordinary shares, £12.4m of reserves and £5.0m of long term loans. To calculate return on capital employed using £27.4m as the figure for capital employed, what figure would be used for return?
Correct
The correct option is C.
Explanation
Operating profit is equal to earnings before interest and tax. So the figure that would be used as return for ROCE calculation is £2.5m.
Incorrect
The correct option is C.
Explanation
Operating profit is equal to earnings before interest and tax. So the figure that would be used as return for ROCE calculation is £2.5m.
-
Question 360 of 999CB1005021
Question 360
FlagWhich of the following best explains the need to depreciate buildings, even though their market value may be rising year on year?
Correct
The correct option is B.
Explanation
Buildings unlike land have a finite life, which would explain the need for it to depreciated.
Depreciation over the year represents the use of portion of life of the building.Incorrect
The correct option is B.
Explanation
Buildings unlike land have a finite life, which would explain the need for it to depreciated.
Depreciation over the year represents the use of portion of life of the building. -
Question 361 of 999CB1005022
Question 361
FlagWhich of the following explains why insurance companies’ financial statements are normally produced in a conservative way?
Correct
The correct option is B.
Explanation
Option A is incorrect because an institution cannot be conservative the people running it can be.
Option B is correct it is difficult to estimate the liabilities for an insurance company, plus it is difficult to estimate the profit for the accounting year.
Option C is incorrect because asset base for non-life insurance company would be largely made up of short-term investments.
Option D is incorrect because there is no reason for government to provide such tax relief to an insurance company.Incorrect
The correct option is B.
Explanation
Option A is incorrect because an institution cannot be conservative the people running it can be.
Option B is correct it is difficult to estimate the liabilities for an insurance company, plus it is difficult to estimate the profit for the accounting year.
Option C is incorrect because asset base for non-life insurance company would be largely made up of short-term investments.
Option D is incorrect because there is no reason for government to provide such tax relief to an insurance company. -
Question 362 of 999CB1005023
Question 362
FlagA holding company has a 60% shareholding in a subsidiary. If the subsidiary fails, which of the following would be a valid reason for the holding company to pay the subsidiary’s creditors the amounts owed to them?
Correct
The correct option is B.
Explanation
There is no legal obligation for the parent company to pay off the liabilities of the subsidiary company, so it will have to make the commercial decision as to whether it wants to help it out or not, because if it doesn’t then there will be a negative publicity for the parent company,
Incorrect
The correct option is B.
Explanation
There is no legal obligation for the parent company to pay off the liabilities of the subsidiary company, so it will have to make the commercial decision as to whether it wants to help it out or not, because if it doesn’t then there will be a negative publicity for the parent company,
-
Question 363 of 999CB1005024
Question 363
FlagA company has a very high gross profit margin. Which of the following is the only statement which is definitely true?
Correct
The correct option is D.
Explanation
Having a high profit margin does not imply that company will have a high overall profit, it implies that company makes a high profit from a typical sales.
It is still possible for company to have a high cost base and even higher price base.Incorrect
The correct option is D.
Explanation
Having a high profit margin does not imply that company will have a high overall profit, it implies that company makes a high profit from a typical sales.
It is still possible for company to have a high cost base and even higher price base. -
Question 364 of 999CB1005025
Question 364
FlagA shareholder owns 5,000 ordinary shares of 25p, of which 20p per share has been paid. The shares were originally issued at a premium of 15p per share. The company has just gone into liquidation. What is the maximum amount the shareholder would have to pay towards the company’s liabilities?
Correct
The correct option is B.
Explanation
The shareholders are supposed to pay = 25p + 15p – 20p = 20p per share.
Maximum amount which the shareholders will have to pay = 20p $\times$ 5000 = £1,000
Premiums on the shares are always assumed to be paid entirely with the first call.Incorrect
The correct option is B.
Explanation
The shareholders are supposed to pay = 25p + 15p – 20p = 20p per share.
Maximum amount which the shareholders will have to pay = 20p $\times$ 5000 = £1,000
Premiums on the shares are always assumed to be paid entirely with the first call. -
Question 365 of 999CB1005026
Question 365
FlagInvestment analysts often base their analysis of profitability on earnings before interest, taxation, depreciation and amortization (EBITDA). Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for using EBITDA in preference to net profit?
Correct
The correct option is C.
Explanation
EBITDA is operating profit made by the company in the previous year. It is not possible for EBITDA to give an insight into future profit.
EBITDA does give an insight into the cash generated from the operations of the company, it is more objective than net profit and it is difficult to manipulate.
EBITDA does not include depreciation and amortization amount which is one of the the major source of manipulation and subjectivity in financial statements.Incorrect
The correct option is C.
Explanation
EBITDA is operating profit made by the company in the previous year. It is not possible for EBITDA to give an insight into future profit.
EBITDA does give an insight into the cash generated from the operations of the company, it is more objective than net profit and it is difficult to manipulate.
EBITDA does not include depreciation and amortization amount which is one of the the major source of manipulation and subjectivity in financial statements. -
Question 366 of 999CB1005027
Question 366
FlagIt has been suggested that capital markets can motivate directors to maximize the financial performance of their companies. Which of the following is likely to have the most immediate effect on directors motivation?
Correct
The correct option is D.
Explanation
Option A is incorrect because this will have a impact on the company and not on the directors, plus it would have impact as and when the company raises the funds.
Option B is incorrect as this would not have an immediate impact on directors.
Option C is incorrect because this is irrelevant.
Option D is correct because a fall in share price would motivate predator companies and individual to make a takeover bid, they would takeover the company and remove the directors from the company. Or, the other possibility is that shareholders call an extra-ordinary general meeting and question the directors there.Incorrect
The correct option is D.
Explanation
Option A is incorrect because this will have a impact on the company and not on the directors, plus it would have impact as and when the company raises the funds.
Option B is incorrect as this would not have an immediate impact on directors.
Option C is incorrect because this is irrelevant.
Option D is correct because a fall in share price would motivate predator companies and individual to make a takeover bid, they would takeover the company and remove the directors from the company. Or, the other possibility is that shareholders call an extra-ordinary general meeting and question the directors there. -
Question 367 of 999CB1005028
Question 367
FlagBank overdrafts can remain outstanding for many years. When does a bank overdraft normally become repayable?
Correct
The correct option is A.
Explanation
Bank overdraft is repayable as and when the bank demands for it, there is no agreed repayment term or period for it.
Plus, companies generally avoid using overdraft facility for as long as 5 years because of the high interest rate that is charged on it, if company knows that they would need finance for 5 years they would simply take out a loan for 5 years that would be much cheaper.Incorrect
The correct option is A.
Explanation
Bank overdraft is repayable as and when the bank demands for it, there is no agreed repayment term or period for it.
Plus, companies generally avoid using overdraft facility for as long as 5 years because of the high interest rate that is charged on it, if company knows that they would need finance for 5 years they would simply take out a loan for 5 years that would be much cheaper. -
Question 368 of 999CB1005029
Question 368
FlagA limited liability partnership (LLP) was founded by four members, but subsequently admitted two additional partners. The partnership has become insolvent and has been wound up owing net debts of £600,000. What is the personal liability of T, one of the founder partners?
Correct
The correct option is A.
Explanation
In a LLP partners have limited liability, at max they can loose the capital they have invested in the company. So they owe nothing to the debtors once the assets of the firm has exhausted.
Incorrect
The correct option is A.
Explanation
In a LLP partners have limited liability, at max they can loose the capital they have invested in the company. So they owe nothing to the debtors once the assets of the firm has exhausted.
-
Question 369 of 999CB1005030
Question 369
FlagA company is considering raising a loan, which would increase the company’s gearing ratio to a significant level, rather than issuing equity. In which of the following situations would such a decision be most appropriate?
Correct
The correct option is C.
Explanation
High gearing ratio will not have a significant impact on companies who have stable revenue and cost, which implies they have stable profit. This is because high gearing ratio would make fluctuation of profit more volatile, which is a bad thing.
Incorrect
The correct option is C.
Explanation
High gearing ratio will not have a significant impact on companies who have stable revenue and cost, which implies they have stable profit. This is because high gearing ratio would make fluctuation of profit more volatile, which is a bad thing.
-
Question 370 of 999CB1005032
Question 370
FlagA company evaluates all potential investment projects by ensuring that the internal rate of return exceeds the company’s weighted average cost of capital. Which of the following reasons is the soundest justification for such a policy?
Correct
The correct option is D.
Explanation
If the desired rate of return from the project is 14%, and the project offers 11% and WACC is 10%; in such scenario although the project offers a return higher than WACC it is still undesirable. Soo using this method can still lead to acceptance of undesirable projects, so option A is incorrect.
Option B is incorrect because it is not possible to incorporate stock market sentiments through IRR.
Option C is incorrect because there are other methods of project evaluation which are more consistent with the finance theory, like NPV. For example: IRR can lead to multiple solutions whereas NPV will not give us multiple solutions, whereas finance theory says that our method of project evaluation should give us a unique solution, which shows NPV is more consistent with finance theory.
Option D is correct because this is a simple method of project evaluation.Incorrect
The correct option is D.
Explanation
If the desired rate of return from the project is 14%, and the project offers 11% and WACC is 10%; in such scenario although the project offers a return higher than WACC it is still undesirable. Soo using this method can still lead to acceptance of undesirable projects, so option A is incorrect.
Option B is incorrect because it is not possible to incorporate stock market sentiments through IRR.
Option C is incorrect because there are other methods of project evaluation which are more consistent with the finance theory, like NPV. For example: IRR can lead to multiple solutions whereas NPV will not give us multiple solutions, whereas finance theory says that our method of project evaluation should give us a unique solution, which shows NPV is more consistent with finance theory.
Option D is correct because this is a simple method of project evaluation. -
Question 371 of 999CB1005034
Question 371
FlagWhich of the following is not required by Companies Act 2013 disclosure requirements for all the companies?
Correct
The correct option is C.
Explanation
It is not required for OPC, Section-8 companies and Small companies to file a cash flow statement.
Incorrect
The correct option is C.
Explanation
It is not required for OPC, Section-8 companies and Small companies to file a cash flow statement.
-
Question 372 of 999CB1005037
Question 372
FlagA company’s balance sheet excludes the value of a major patent that was registered after a research breakthrough by its own employees. Which of the following accounting concepts best justifies the exclusion of this patent?
Correct
The correct option is A.
Explanation
Company has not derived any financial or monetary benefit from this patent, so it should not be included in the balance sheets.
Company should, however, disclose this in the notes to accounts.Incorrect
The correct option is A.
Explanation
Company has not derived any financial or monetary benefit from this patent, so it should not be included in the balance sheets.
Company should, however, disclose this in the notes to accounts. -
Question 373 of 999CB1005038
Question 373
FlagCompany B has 1,000 shares in issue. An investment bank holds 999 of these. The remaining share is held by Company A. Company A’s share is in a special category that carries 51% of the voting rights. Which of the following best describes the relationship between Company A and Company B for consolidation purposes?
Correct
The correct option is D.
Explanation:
A subsidiary-parent relationship can be established without holding majority of shares, what matters is that parent company have majority of the voting powers in the subsidiary company.
So, Company B would be considered as a subsidiary of company A.Incorrect
The correct option is D.
Explanation:
A subsidiary-parent relationship can be established without holding majority of shares, what matters is that parent company have majority of the voting powers in the subsidiary company.
So, Company B would be considered as a subsidiary of company A. -
Question 374 of 999CB1005040
Question 374
FlagWhich of the following problems is most likely to be overlooked by a ratio analysis of a company’s financial statements?
Correct
The correct option is D.
Explanation:
Contingent liabilities are not included in the balance sheet or profit and loss account, they are mentioned in the notes to accounts. So, they would be missed by the ratio analysis.
Incorrect
The correct option is D.
Explanation:
Contingent liabilities are not included in the balance sheet or profit and loss account, they are mentioned in the notes to accounts. So, they would be missed by the ratio analysis.
-
Question 375 of 999CB1005075
Question 375
FlagABC Ltd started trading on 1 January 2005 and has a gross profit margin of 24%. It made sales of £184,650 during the year to 31 December 2005 and made purchases of £178,600.What is ABC Ltd’s closing stock?
Correct
The correct option is A.
Explanation:
Gross profit = Sales + Closing Stock – Purchases
Gross profit margin = 24% = Gross Profit/Sales
24% = Gross Profit/184650
Gross profit = 44316
So,
44316 = 184650+Closing Stock – 178600
Closing Stock = £38,266Incorrect
The correct option is A.
Explanation:
Gross profit = Sales + Closing Stock – Purchases
Gross profit margin = 24% = Gross Profit/Sales
24% = Gross Profit/184650
Gross profit = 44316
So,
44316 = 184650+Closing Stock – 178600
Closing Stock = £38,266 -
Question 376 of 999CB1005076
Question 376
FlagIf the auditor of a company cannot obtain sufficient evidence to give an opinion on whether or not the company s financial statements give a true and fair view, the auditor should issue:
Correct
The correct option is B.
Explanation:
The question says that the auditor is not able to form a opinion whether the financial statements give a true and fair view or not so a disclaimer of opinion should be issued.
The question does not say that there was a restriction placed on the evidence.Incorrect
The correct option is B.
Explanation:
The question says that the auditor is not able to form a opinion whether the financial statements give a true and fair view or not so a disclaimer of opinion should be issued.
The question does not say that there was a restriction placed on the evidence. -
Question 377 of 999CB1005077
Question 377
FlagAgency theory identifies certain types of cost as agency costs:
I – Directors salaries
II – Directors bonuses
III- The auditors’ fees
IV – Employees’ pay rise
Which of the above would be an agency costCorrect
The correct option is C.
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect because directors’ salary is paid in cash and is not linked to shareholders’ wealth or share price. So this is not an agency cost.
Statement II is correct because directors’ bonuses are linked to shareholders’ wealth in such a way that they have the incentive to take decisions in the favor of shareholders. This would not have been paid if directors’ interests were aligned with the shareholders to begin with.
Statement III is correct because auditors’ fees are paid because shareholders do not have complete trust over the accounts presented by the directors, so this is agency cost.
Statement IV is incorrect because employees’ pay rise is to reflect their increase roles and responsibilities and is not due to agency issues.Incorrect
The correct option is C.
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect because directors’ salary is paid in cash and is not linked to shareholders’ wealth or share price. So this is not an agency cost.
Statement II is correct because directors’ bonuses are linked to shareholders’ wealth in such a way that they have the incentive to take decisions in the favor of shareholders. This would not have been paid if directors’ interests were aligned with the shareholders to begin with.
Statement III is correct because auditors’ fees are paid because shareholders do not have complete trust over the accounts presented by the directors, so this is agency cost.
Statement IV is incorrect because employees’ pay rise is to reflect their increase roles and responsibilities and is not due to agency issues. -
Question 378 of 999CB1005078
Question 378
FlagWhich of the following is NOT true of Eurobonds?
Correct
The correct option is A.
Explanation:
Eurobonds have Euros in its name due to its origin, in today’s day and time Eurobond can be dominated in any currency.
Eurobonds can be issued by Government and companies, and they are traded through banks.
Eurobonds are made to be traded internationally.Incorrect
The correct option is A.
Explanation:
Eurobonds have Euros in its name due to its origin, in today’s day and time Eurobond can be dominated in any currency.
Eurobonds can be issued by Government and companies, and they are traded through banks.
Eurobonds are made to be traded internationally. -
Question 379 of 999CB1005079
Question 379
FlagProject XYZ requires an initial cash outlay of £50m. It was initially believed that this investment would create cash inflows of £16m in each of the following three years, and £12m in each of the next two years, after which the project would be complete. The payback period and internal rate of return of the project were calculated for the project. A further review of project cash flows indicated that the final cash flow in year five had been overestimated, and would probably be only £4m. What effect would this have on the two calculations?
Correct
The correct option is A.
Explanation:
Before the payback period was 4 years, 16$\times$3+12 = £60m.
Now the payback period would still be 4 years, 16$\times$3+4 = £52m.
So, the payback period would remain unchanged.
Internal rate of return for the project would definitely fall since the inflow has decreased.Incorrect
The correct option is A.
Explanation:
Before the payback period was 4 years, 16$\times$3+12 = £60m.
Now the payback period would still be 4 years, 16$\times$3+4 = £52m.
So, the payback period would remain unchanged.
Internal rate of return for the project would definitely fall since the inflow has decreased. -
Question 380 of 999CB1005081
Question 380
FlagA business made a loss during the financial year just ended but has more cash at the end of the year than it did at the beginning. Which of the following could be a reason for this?
Correct
The correct option is B.
Explanation:
If dividends were paid during the year, whether lower or higher than the current year, the cash balance at the end would have been lower than the last year’s cash balance because dividend payment would include some cash outflow.
It is only if some fixed asset were sold that would explain a higher cash balance at the end than at the start despite a loss.
If debtors took longer to pay than the last year then the cash balance at the end would have been lower than at the start.
Creditors were there, irrespective of higher or lower, would involve some cash outflow. So this also does not explain the scenario in the question.Incorrect
The correct option is B.
Explanation:
If dividends were paid during the year, whether lower or higher than the current year, the cash balance at the end would have been lower than the last year’s cash balance because dividend payment would include some cash outflow.
It is only if some fixed asset were sold that would explain a higher cash balance at the end than at the start despite a loss.
If debtors took longer to pay than the last year then the cash balance at the end would have been lower than at the start.
Creditors were there, irrespective of higher or lower, would involve some cash outflow. So this also does not explain the scenario in the question. -
Question 381 of 999CB1005082
Question 381
FlagWhich of the following is NOT true in relation to company taxation?
Correct
The correct option is B.
Explanation:
Capital allowance is not added to the accounting profit of the company, it is deducted from any capital gain made by the company.
Option A and C are true, interest payments and lease payments are tax deductible. Which gives debt a major advantage over equity.Incorrect
The correct option is B.
Explanation:
Capital allowance is not added to the accounting profit of the company, it is deducted from any capital gain made by the company.
Option A and C are true, interest payments and lease payments are tax deductible. Which gives debt a major advantage over equity. -
Question 382 of 999CB1005083
Question 382
FlagWhich of the following is a component of the weighted average cost of capital (WACC)?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONWACC is calculated using the cost of debt, cost of equity, and the market values of debt and equity.
Capital can be raised through debt and equity, so cost of capital will include both cost of debt and cost of equity.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONWACC is calculated using the cost of debt, cost of equity, and the market values of debt and equity.
Capital can be raised through debt and equity, so cost of capital will include both cost of debt and cost of equity. -
Question 383 of 999CB1005084
Question 383
FlagIf a project has the same degree of systematic risk as the company’s existing projects, which discount rate should be used to value the project?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONThe discount rate to value the project is reflective of the systematic risk involved in it. So, a project with same degree of systematic risk as the existing projects should be valued at the cost of capital of the company.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONThe discount rate to value the project is reflective of the systematic risk involved in it. So, a project with same degree of systematic risk as the existing projects should be valued at the cost of capital of the company.
-
Question 384 of 999CB1005085
Question 384
FlagA company has a high return on capital employed but a low gross profit percentage. Which of the following is the best interpretation of these results?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONIf the company sales aggressively only that would explain a high ROCE and a low gross profit margin.
Option B is incorrect because that is a suggestion and not an explanation.
Option C is incorrect because if company was unprofitable then the ROCE would not have been high.
Option D is incorrect, because ROCE is a very important measure and should not be disregarded.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONIf the company sales aggressively only that would explain a high ROCE and a low gross profit margin.
Option B is incorrect because that is a suggestion and not an explanation.
Option C is incorrect because if company was unprofitable then the ROCE would not have been high.
Option D is incorrect, because ROCE is a very important measure and should not be disregarded. -
Question 385 of 999CB1005086
Question 385
FlagWhich of the following is NOT a way to mitigate risk in a capital project?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONRisk can be mitigated in a capital project by avoiding, reducing or transferring the risk. Ignoring the risk is not a recommended way to do so.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONRisk can be mitigated in a capital project by avoiding, reducing or transferring the risk. Ignoring the risk is not a recommended way to do so.
-
Question 386 of 999CB1005087
Question 386
FlagWhat is the aim of Risk mitigation strategies?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONRisk mitigation makes risks less likely to happen and/or less costly if they do. It helps to reduce the threats to make a project more attractive.
If the threat that the company is facing is earthquake or flood, there is no way or strategy which the company can use to reduce the probability of earthquake or flood.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONRisk mitigation makes risks less likely to happen and/or less costly if they do. It helps to reduce the threats to make a project more attractive.
If the threat that the company is facing is earthquake or flood, there is no way or strategy which the company can use to reduce the probability of earthquake or flood. -
Question 387 of 999CB1005088
Question 387
FlagA company has a high price earnings (P/E) ratio. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONHigher price earning would suggest that shareholders are ready to pay a higher multiple of earnings of the company, which suggests that shareholders are confident in the company.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONHigher price earning would suggest that shareholders are ready to pay a higher multiple of earnings of the company, which suggests that shareholders are confident in the company.
-
Question 388 of 999CB1005089
Question 388
FlagWhich of the following is NOT a step in effective risk identification for a capital project?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONRisk identification involves brainstorming, desktop analysis, and maintaining a risk register but doesn’t involve ignoring unlikely risks.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONRisk identification involves brainstorming, desktop analysis, and maintaining a risk register but doesn’t involve ignoring unlikely risks.
-
Question 389 of 999CB1005090
Question 389
FlagWhat is the purpose of a risk matrix in capital project appraisal
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONA risk matrix is used for both identifying and analyzing risks in a capital project.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONA risk matrix is used for both identifying and analyzing risks in a capital project.
-
Question 390 of 999CB1005091
Question 390
FlagA company’s board of directors is considering an approach by a competitor who wishes to offer the shareholders an attractive price for their shares so that it can take the business over. Which of the following responses is most compatible with agency theory?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONAgency theory is when agents make decision that aligns with their own interest rather than the principal’s interest, and in this case directors are agents and shareholders are principal.
In this case, one of the agency issue that may arise is that director will influence the shareholders to not accept the offer made by the competitor because that would threaten their own job security. Here they are thinking about themselves and not about the shareholders, this is compatible with agency theory.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONAgency theory is when agents make decision that aligns with their own interest rather than the principal’s interest, and in this case directors are agents and shareholders are principal.
In this case, one of the agency issue that may arise is that director will influence the shareholders to not accept the offer made by the competitor because that would threaten their own job security. Here they are thinking about themselves and not about the shareholders, this is compatible with agency theory. -
Question 391 of 999CB1005092
Question 391
FlagWhich of the following is NOT a cause of risk that can be included in a risk matrix?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONA risk matrix typically includes causes of risk such as political, economic, project-specific, natural, financial, and crime-related risks. Diversifiable risks are specific to the project and can be diversified away by investing in various projects, so they are not usually included in a risk matrix.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONA risk matrix typically includes causes of risk such as political, economic, project-specific, natural, financial, and crime-related risks. Diversifiable risks are specific to the project and can be diversified away by investing in various projects, so they are not usually included in a risk matrix.
-
Question 392 of 999CB1005093
Question 392
FlagA company is planning to issue subordinated bonds. What rate of interest will have to be offered on them relative to that on the company’s existing debt?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATION
Subordinated debt carries higher risk than existing debt of the company, because it is considered as ‘junior debt’. So they would be paid interest payment and capital repayment after every other debt holder is paid. So a higher rate of return will have to be offered to them to make it marketable.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATION
Subordinated debt carries higher risk than existing debt of the company, because it is considered as ‘junior debt’. So they would be paid interest payment and capital repayment after every other debt holder is paid. So a higher rate of return will have to be offered to them to make it marketable. -
Question 393 of 999CB1005094
Question 393
FlagWhich of the following is a systematic risk that cannot be diversified away?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONInflation risk is a systematic risk which is macro-economic in nature that affects all projects hence cannot be diversified away. Construction, credit, and operational risks are specific to a project and can potentially be diversified away in a well-diversified portfolio. Construction risk are risk specific to those projects which involves some form of construction in it, projects involving trading would not be affected by it.
Similarly, Credit risk are specific to those projects which involve some form of credit trade in it, this can be diversified away by investing in projects which involves upfront payment. Again, operational risk can be diversified away by investing in those projects in which operations are in hands of a trustworthy and reliable team.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONInflation risk is a systematic risk which is macro-economic in nature that affects all projects hence cannot be diversified away. Construction, credit, and operational risks are specific to a project and can potentially be diversified away in a well-diversified portfolio. Construction risk are risk specific to those projects which involves some form of construction in it, projects involving trading would not be affected by it.
Similarly, Credit risk are specific to those projects which involve some form of credit trade in it, this can be diversified away by investing in projects which involves upfront payment. Again, operational risk can be diversified away by investing in those projects in which operations are in hands of a trustworthy and reliable team. -
Question 394 of 999CB1005095
Question 394
FlagWhat is the purpose of using certainty equivalents in capital project appraisal?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONCertainty equivalents are used to replace individual risky projected cash flows with their risk-adjusted values, effectively adjusting for risk in the cash flow projections.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONCertainty equivalents are used to replace individual risky projected cash flows with their risk-adjusted values, effectively adjusting for risk in the cash flow projections.
-
Question 395 of 999CB1005096
Question 395
FlagWhich of the following is a way to mitigate risk in a capital project?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONTransferring risk through insurance, sharing risk with another party, and reducing uncertainty through further research are all valid ways to mitigate risk in a capital project.
The entirety of the risk can be transferred by taking out insurance.
The entity in question can collaborate with other companies through partnerships or joint ventures to share the risk with them.
Further research can be carried out to know more about the risk and more possible ways to reduce the possibility of the risk or to mitigate the risk.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONTransferring risk through insurance, sharing risk with another party, and reducing uncertainty through further research are all valid ways to mitigate risk in a capital project.
The entirety of the risk can be transferred by taking out insurance.
The entity in question can collaborate with other companies through partnerships or joint ventures to share the risk with them.
Further research can be carried out to know more about the risk and more possible ways to reduce the possibility of the risk or to mitigate the risk. -
Question 396 of 999CB1005097
Question 396
FlagA company has 500,000 warrants outstanding with a strike price of £2.00. The current share price is £1.90. The warrants are about to expire. How much money is the company likely to receive from the exercise of these warrants?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONWarrants are a kind of call option which gives the buyer a right not an obligation to purchase company’s share at a fixed price.
Since, the shares of the company is already trading at £1.90 which is lower than £2.00, no one would exercise the warrants. So the company is not likely to receive any amount from the warrants.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONWarrants are a kind of call option which gives the buyer a right not an obligation to purchase company’s share at a fixed price.
Since, the shares of the company is already trading at £1.90 which is lower than £2.00, no one would exercise the warrants. So the company is not likely to receive any amount from the warrants. -
Question 397 of 999CB1005098
Question 397
FlagWhich factor would suggest a higher value for beta should be used for a project?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONHigh cyclicality, meaning that the project’s outcome depends strongly on the state of the economy and the business cycle. This means that the project is very much correlated with the market. This suggests that a higher value for beta should be used.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONHigh cyclicality, meaning that the project’s outcome depends strongly on the state of the economy and the business cycle. This means that the project is very much correlated with the market. This suggests that a higher value for beta should be used.
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Question 398 of 999CB1005099
Question 398
FlagWhat is the purpose of using the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) in capital project appraisal?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONThe CAPM can be used to estimate the required rate of return for a capital project, which can then be used as the risk discount rate to price the project.
The CAPM model does not tell us the cost of equity or cost of debt, so it is not possible to calculate WACC from that.
Nor does it take risk into account so it is not possible for CAPM models to identify risk or mitigate the risk.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONThe CAPM can be used to estimate the required rate of return for a capital project, which can then be used as the risk discount rate to price the project.
The CAPM model does not tell us the cost of equity or cost of debt, so it is not possible to calculate WACC from that.
Nor does it take risk into account so it is not possible for CAPM models to identify risk or mitigate the risk.
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Question 399 of 999CB1005100
Question 399
FlagWhich of the following is a potential issue with using different discount rates for different projects within a company?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONUsing different discount rates for different projects can lead to internal friction, incorrect acceptance of risky projects, and incorrect rejection of low-risk projects.
Managers can use different risks to accept those projects which they have personal interest in.
They can downplay the risks of the involved with the risk to.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONUsing different discount rates for different projects can lead to internal friction, incorrect acceptance of risky projects, and incorrect rejection of low-risk projects.
Managers can use different risks to accept those projects which they have personal interest in.
They can downplay the risks of the involved with the risk to. -
Question 400 of 999CB1005101
Question 400
FlagWhat is the purpose of a risk register in capital project appraisal?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONA risk register is used to set out all the identified risks in a capital project, along with their characteristics and cross-references to other risks where there is interdependency whereas, a risk matrix is used for both identifying and analyzing risks in a capital project.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONA risk register is used to set out all the identified risks in a capital project, along with their characteristics and cross-references to other risks where there is interdependency whereas, a risk matrix is used for both identifying and analyzing risks in a capital project.
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Question 401 of 999CB1005102
Question 401
FlagWhich of the following is a potential issue with using a very high discount rate in capital project appraisal?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONUsing a very high discount rate can lead to incorrect valuation of future cash flows (both inflow and outflow). This leads to acceptance of risky projects, incorrect rejection of low-risk projects, and distortion of the relative weights placed on short-term and long-term cash flows.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONUsing a very high discount rate can lead to incorrect valuation of future cash flows (both inflow and outflow). This leads to acceptance of risky projects, incorrect rejection of low-risk projects, and distortion of the relative weights placed on short-term and long-term cash flows.
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Question 402 of 999CB1005103
Question 402
FlagA project has a positive net present value when the cash flows are discounted at 10%. The project has two internal rates of return of 8% and 15%. What is the most likely explanation for this set of figures?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONIt is possible for us to get multiple IRR for a single project.
However, we do not know whether this project has a IRR higher than 15% or not, so we cannot comment that the NPV of the project will be positive for a rate higher than 15% as well.
But since project has a positive NPV at 10% interest rate, therefore we can comment that the project should be accepted if the required rate of return is higher than 8% but less than 15%.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONIt is possible for us to get multiple IRR for a single project.
However, we do not know whether this project has a IRR higher than 15% or not, so we cannot comment that the NPV of the project will be positive for a rate higher than 15% as well.
But since project has a positive NPV at 10% interest rate, therefore we can comment that the project should be accepted if the required rate of return is higher than 8% but less than 15%. -
Question 403 of 999CB1005104
Question 403
FlagWhich of the following is a potential benefit of diversifying a company’s portfolio by undertaking multiple projects?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONDiversifying a company’s portfolio by undertaking multiple projects can potentially reduce the volatility of portfolio returns, but it does not necessarily increase the expected return rather, it usually decreases the expected return.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONDiversifying a company’s portfolio by undertaking multiple projects can potentially reduce the volatility of portfolio returns, but it does not necessarily increase the expected return rather, it usually decreases the expected return.
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Question 404 of 999CB1005105
Question 404
FlagTo whom does the external auditor report?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONAuditors are appointed by the shareholders, so they report the shareholders only.
Although, other stakeholders do make decision on the basis of audited financial statements.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONAuditors are appointed by the shareholders, so they report the shareholders only.
Although, other stakeholders do make decision on the basis of audited financial statements. -
Question 405 of 999CB1005106
Question 405
FlagWhich of the following is a specific risk that can be diversified away by investing in a well-diversified portfolio?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONWeather risk for a specific construction project is a specific risk that can potentially be diversified away by investing in a well-diversified portfolio of projects from different geographical locations.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONWeather risk for a specific construction project is a specific risk that can potentially be diversified away by investing in a well-diversified portfolio of projects from different geographical locations.
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Question 406 of 999CB1005107
Question 406
FlagWhich of the following is a potential issue with using a single discount rate for all projects within a company?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONUsing a single discount rate for all projects within a company leads to oversimplification. This can lead to all the problems listed above.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONUsing a single discount rate for all projects within a company leads to oversimplification. This can lead to all the problems listed above.
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Question 407 of 999CB1005108
Question 407
FlagWhich of the following is a potential advantage of using certainty equivalents in capital project appraisal?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONUsing certainty equivalents helps to replace uncertain cashflows with certain cashflows and eliminates the issue of determining different discount rates for each project. This simplifies the process but it neither reduce the need for risk analysis nor eliminate the need for risk mitigation.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONUsing certainty equivalents helps to replace uncertain cashflows with certain cashflows and eliminates the issue of determining different discount rates for each project. This simplifies the process but it neither reduce the need for risk analysis nor eliminate the need for risk mitigation.
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Question 408 of 999CB1005109
Question 408
FlagA company has 2,000,000 ordinary shares of £1 in issue. The current market price is £4.00 per share. The directors are about to make a scrip issue of 500,000 shares. What is the expected market price per share after the scrip issue?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONScrip issue shares are those shares for which shareholders do not have to pay anything, so the expected market price per share after the scrip issue:
=2000000/(2000000+500000)$\times$4+500000/(2000000+500000)$\times$0 = £3.20Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONScrip issue shares are those shares for which shareholders do not have to pay anything, so the expected market price per share after the scrip issue:
=2000000/(2000000+500000)$\times$4+500000/(2000000+500000)$\times$0 = £3.20 -
Question 409 of 999CB1005110
Question 409
FlagThe WACC represents the rate of return that should be used to discount the future cash flows generated by a company’s projects.
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONThe WACC represents the rate of return that must be achieved on projects if the existing shareholders are to remain at break even. It is, therefore, the appropriate rate to use to discount future cash flows from the company’s projects.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONThe WACC represents the rate of return that must be achieved on projects if the existing shareholders are to remain at break even. It is, therefore, the appropriate rate to use to discount future cash flows from the company’s projects.
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Question 410 of 999CB1005111
Question 410
FlagIf a project has a higher degree of systematic risk than the company’s existing projects, the discount rate used should be lower than the company’s WACC.
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONIf a project has a higher degree of systematic risk than the company’s existing projects, the discount rate used should be higher than the company’s WACC to reflect the additional risk.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONIf a project has a higher degree of systematic risk than the company’s existing projects, the discount rate used should be higher than the company’s WACC to reflect the additional risk.
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Question 411 of 999CB1005112
Question 411
FlagCertainty equivalents replace individual risky projected cash flows with their risk-adjusted values, which can then be discounted at the risk-free rate.
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONCertainty equivalents replace individual risky projected cash flows with their risk-adjusted values, but these are then discounted at a uniform rate of return, not the risk-free rate.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONCertainty equivalents replace individual risky projected cash flows with their risk-adjusted values, but these are then discounted at a uniform rate of return, not the risk-free rate.
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Question 412 of 999CB1005113
Question 412
FlagUsing the same discount rate to evaluate all projects, regardless of risk differences, will lead to optimal capital budgeting decisions.
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONApplying a single discount rate ignores differences in project risk. Riskier projects should be discounted at higher rates. Using one rate can lead to incorrect accept/reject choices.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONApplying a single discount rate ignores differences in project risk. Riskier projects should be discounted at higher rates. Using one rate can lead to incorrect accept/reject choices.
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Question 413 of 999CB1005114
Question 413
FlagThe WACC is calculated as a weighted average of the cost of _________ and the cost of _________, weighted by their respective market values.
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONWACC is calculated using the cost of debt, cost of equity, and the market values of debt and equity. It is the weighted average of the cost of debt as well as the cost of equity. Debentures and shares is correct answer but it is not the most appropriate one.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONWACC is calculated using the cost of debt, cost of equity, and the market values of debt and equity. It is the weighted average of the cost of debt as well as the cost of equity. Debentures and shares is correct answer but it is not the most appropriate one.
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Question 414 of 999CB1005115
Question 414
FlagIf a project has a _________ degree of systematic risk than the company’s existing projects, the discount rate used should be adjusted upwards.
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONIf a project has a higher degree of systematic risk than the company’s existing projects, the discount rate used should be higher than the company’s WACC to reflect the additional risk.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONIf a project has a higher degree of systematic risk than the company’s existing projects, the discount rate used should be higher than the company’s WACC to reflect the additional risk.
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Question 415 of 999CB1005116
Question 415
FlagA _________ can be used to systematically identify risks in a capital project, categorized by cause of risk and stage of the project.
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONA risk matrix is used for both identifying and analyzing risks in a capital project by categorizing them into different sections.
Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONA risk matrix is used for both identifying and analyzing risks in a capital project by categorizing them into different sections.
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Question 416 of 999CB1005117
Question 416
FlagThe ______ represents the rate of return a company must achieve on its projects to leave the investors no better or worse off, this rate would not necessarily satisfy the investor.
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONThe WACC reflects the blended cost of a company’s debt and equity capital. It is the return that must be earned to compensate investors at their required rates. Any return below this would reduce shareholders’ wealth.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONThe WACC reflects the blended cost of a company’s debt and equity capital. It is the return that must be earned to compensate investors at their required rates. Any return below this would reduce shareholders’ wealth.
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Question 417 of 999CB1005118
Question 417
FlagRisk ______ strategies aim to reduce either the probability a risk event occurs, the financial impact if it does occur, or both.
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONMitigation makes risks less likely to happen and/or less costly if they do. It helps to reduce the threats to make a project more attractive.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONMitigation makes risks less likely to happen and/or less costly if they do. It helps to reduce the threats to make a project more attractive.
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Question 418 of 999CB1005119
Question 418
FlagAssertion: The weighted average cost of capital (WACC) is an appropriate discount rate for a project with the same risk profile as the company’s typical project.
Reasoning: The WACC represents the blended cost of the company’s debt and equity financing and thus the return that must be earned to satisfy suppliers of capital.Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONThe WACC reflects the return required to compensate investors at their required rates and is an appropriate discount rate for projects with similar risk profiles.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONThe WACC reflects the return required to compensate investors at their required rates and is an appropriate discount rate for projects with similar risk profiles.
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Question 419 of 999CB1005120
Question 419
FlagAssertion: A project’s beta measures its systematic risk exposure.
Reasoning: Higher beta projects are more sensitive to broad market movements and therefore have higher systematic risk based on the CAPM framework.Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONBeta measures a project’s systematic risk, and higher beta projects are more sensitive to market movements, indicating higher systematic risk.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONBeta measures a project’s systematic risk, and higher beta projects are more sensitive to market movements, indicating higher systematic risk.
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Question 420 of 999CB1005121
Question 420
FlagA company’s debentures have a face value of £1,000 and a market price of £900. Which of the following is NOT a potentially valid explanation for this difference?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONOption A is is not valid reason for the excess of face value of debenture over the market price of the debenture.
Option B is a valid reason for the scenario in question, if public has lost confidence in company then the marketability of the debt of the company will fall, so there would be a reduced demand and higher supply for debentures of company.
Option C is a valid reason as well, if there are other instruments in the market which offers a higher interest rate than the debenture at a lower level or same level of risk as debentures then this would make the debentures less marketable.
Option D is also a valid reason for low market price of debentures as compared to its face value.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONOption A is is not valid reason for the excess of face value of debenture over the market price of the debenture.
Option B is a valid reason for the scenario in question, if public has lost confidence in company then the marketability of the debt of the company will fall, so there would be a reduced demand and higher supply for debentures of company.
Option C is a valid reason as well, if there are other instruments in the market which offers a higher interest rate than the debenture at a lower level or same level of risk as debentures then this would make the debentures less marketable.
Option D is also a valid reason for low market price of debentures as compared to its face value. -
Question 421 of 999CB1005122
Question 421
FlagAssertion: Diversification can eliminate a project’s exposure to systematic risk factors.
Reasoning: Investing in a broad portfolio of projects, including the same type multiple times, will diversify away systematic risk.Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONSystematic risk, by definition, cannot be diversified away because it affects all projects to some degree. Diversification only mitigates unsystematic, project-specific risks.
Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONSystematic risk, by definition, cannot be diversified away because it affects all projects to some degree. Diversification only mitigates unsystematic, project-specific risks.
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Question 422 of 999CB1005123
Question 422
FlagAssertion: Risk mitigation efforts focus on reducing either the likelihood a risk event happens, the severity of impact if it does happen, or both.
Reasoning: The cost of implementing a risk mitigation strategy will typically increase a project’s expected NPV.Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONMitigation costs usually decrease, not increase, expected NPV.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONMitigation costs usually decrease, not increase, expected NPV.
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Question 423 of 999CB1005124
Question 423
FlagAssertion: A positive NPV project, discounted at the company’s WACC, will increase shareholder value.
Reasoning: The project’s expected return exceeds the cost of capital, given its risk profile, and therefore creates value.Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONIf a project’s NPV is positive when discounted at the WACC, it is expected to earn a return greater than the WACC. This means the project should increase shareholder value.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONIf a project’s NPV is positive when discounted at the WACC, it is expected to earn a return greater than the WACC. This means the project should increase shareholder value.
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Question 424 of 999CB1005130
Question 424
FlagWhich of the following best explains why an excessively high current ratio is undesirable?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONHigh current ratio implies that the company is holding too much cash, so there is no risk of the company running out of cash, so option A is incorrect.
Excessive cash lying out does have a risk of encouraging overspending but that is not the correct reason for the question.
Option C is correct: high current ratio means higher inventory, and higher inventory would mean higher storage and maintenance cost for the same which is undesirable. So it is not desirable to tie up capital in working capital which would provide negative return to the company.
Option D is incorrect because higher current ratio will not lead to such things.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONHigh current ratio implies that the company is holding too much cash, so there is no risk of the company running out of cash, so option A is incorrect.
Excessive cash lying out does have a risk of encouraging overspending but that is not the correct reason for the question.
Option C is correct: high current ratio means higher inventory, and higher inventory would mean higher storage and maintenance cost for the same which is undesirable. So it is not desirable to tie up capital in working capital which would provide negative return to the company.
Option D is incorrect because higher current ratio will not lead to such things. -
Question 425 of 999CB1005181
Question 425
FlagA company’s shares are trading at 20p on the open market. The shares have a par value of 25p. The directors wish to raise additional share capital, but have been told that this would be impossible at the moment. Why is the company unable to issue fresh shares?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONIf the company wishes to issue further shares then they would have to offer it at a price which is cheaper than the current market price, or else no one would purchase them.
Also, as per the rules a company cannot issue shares at a price which is lower than their face value. That is, the shares can only be issued at its face value or at a premium.
But since, the current market value of the shares are less than its face value it is not possible to issue them at the moment.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONIf the company wishes to issue further shares then they would have to offer it at a price which is cheaper than the current market price, or else no one would purchase them.
Also, as per the rules a company cannot issue shares at a price which is lower than their face value. That is, the shares can only be issued at its face value or at a premium.
But since, the current market value of the shares are less than its face value it is not possible to issue them at the moment. -
Question 426 of 999CB1005182
Question 426
FlagA company has ordinary shares and preference shares in issue. If the company is wound up, how would the funds released from the liquidation be distributed?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONIn case of winding up the payment would be first made to the lenders of the company.
Then, if there is any leftover it would be made to the preference shareholders, as the name suggests they are those shareholders who get preference at the time of repayment of capital and at the time of payment of dividend.
And, finally if anything is left then it would made to the equity shareholders.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONIn case of winding up the payment would be first made to the lenders of the company.
Then, if there is any leftover it would be made to the preference shareholders, as the name suggests they are those shareholders who get preference at the time of repayment of capital and at the time of payment of dividend.
And, finally if anything is left then it would made to the equity shareholders. -
Question 427 of 999CB1005194
Question 427
FlagWhich of the following best describes the purpose of margin payments associated with futures contracts?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONIn case of future contracts the contract is made with the clearing house in between, so to reduce the credit risk for the clearing house the margin payment is required.
Any loss from future contract would be offset from the margin of the investor.
For example: for a trade of Rs. 10,00,000 the initial margin required would be of Rs. 2,00,000, now in case the trade moves against the investor without the margin, they have the incentive to default on the payment of their losses (which happens frequently in case of forward contracts, investors refuse to pay the losses in case the market moves against them). But now if the trade causes a loss of Rs. 1,00,000 then it would automatically get offset against the margin and Rs. 1,00,000 (which is the leftover) would be returned to the investor.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONIn case of future contracts the contract is made with the clearing house in between, so to reduce the credit risk for the clearing house the margin payment is required.
Any loss from future contract would be offset from the margin of the investor.
For example: for a trade of Rs. 10,00,000 the initial margin required would be of Rs. 2,00,000, now in case the trade moves against the investor without the margin, they have the incentive to default on the payment of their losses (which happens frequently in case of forward contracts, investors refuse to pay the losses in case the market moves against them). But now if the trade causes a loss of Rs. 1,00,000 then it would automatically get offset against the margin and Rs. 1,00,000 (which is the leftover) would be returned to the investor. -
Question 428 of 999CB1005196
Question 428
FlagA company issued 1m shares by tender. The tender offers received were as follows:
> 500,000 at £1.00
> 400,000 at £1.20
> 250,000 at £1.30
How much would you expect this issue to raise?Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONFirstly, the tender offer of the investor who offered to buy the shares at £1.30 would be entirely accepted.
Next, the tender offer of the investor who offered to buy the shares at £1.20 would be entirely accepted.
Finally, the tender offer of the investor who offered to buy the shares at £1.00 would be accepted on a pro-rata basis.
So,
Leftover shares = 10,00,000 – 2,50,000 – 4,00,000 = 3,50,000
Now the shares would not be issued at £1.30, because to ensure sufficient shares are sold it also has to be sold to those investors who bid £1.00 and those investors who bid £1.20. However, the company would aim to issue shares at the highest strike price possible but to ensure sufficient spread of the shares and sufficient sale of the shares it can be issued and in the above case will be issued at £1.00.
So the amount raised after issued would be = 1m$\times$1 = £1,000,000Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONFirstly, the tender offer of the investor who offered to buy the shares at £1.30 would be entirely accepted.
Next, the tender offer of the investor who offered to buy the shares at £1.20 would be entirely accepted.
Finally, the tender offer of the investor who offered to buy the shares at £1.00 would be accepted on a pro-rata basis.
So,
Leftover shares = 10,00,000 – 2,50,000 – 4,00,000 = 3,50,000
Now the shares would not be issued at £1.30, because to ensure sufficient shares are sold it also has to be sold to those investors who bid £1.00 and those investors who bid £1.20. However, the company would aim to issue shares at the highest strike price possible but to ensure sufficient spread of the shares and sufficient sale of the shares it can be issued and in the above case will be issued at £1.00.
So the amount raised after issued would be = 1m$\times$1 = £1,000,000 -
Question 429 of 999CB1005198
Question 429
FlagA company wishes to raise additional funds. Which of the following is most likely to reduce the company’s weighted average cost of capital?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONOut of all the options the cost of issuing debenture stocks would be the lowest because it carries the lowest risk and it also offers tax benefit.
Subordinated loan stock carries higher risk than the debenture stocks because they carry higher risk, so a higher interest rate has to be offered to them.
So the order of cost in ascending order would be debenture stocks < Subordinated debt stocks < Preference shareholders < Equity shareholders.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONOut of all the options the cost of issuing debenture stocks would be the lowest because it carries the lowest risk and it also offers tax benefit.
Subordinated loan stock carries higher risk than the debenture stocks because they carry higher risk, so a higher interest rate has to be offered to them.
So the order of cost in ascending order would be debenture stocks < Subordinated debt stocks < Preference shareholders < Equity shareholders. -
Question 430 of 999CB1005199
Question 430
FlagWhich of the following best explains why a company might borrow cash in order to maintain its dividend payments after a bad year?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONA company who regularly pays dividend would have attracted all those shareholders who WANT regular dividend payments.
So a year in which no dividend payment is made shareholders would over-react.
Plus, if they have always maintained a certain dividend percentage then a reduction in dividend would also cause shareholders to over-react.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONA company who regularly pays dividend would have attracted all those shareholders who WANT regular dividend payments.
So a year in which no dividend payment is made shareholders would over-react.
Plus, if they have always maintained a certain dividend percentage then a reduction in dividend would also cause shareholders to over-react. -
Question 431 of 999CB1005200
Question 431
FlagA project has a very short payback period but a negative net present value. Which of the following best describes the action that should be taken?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONThere are many projects which a company will have to undertake to meet statutory and regulatory requirements.
In real world, rejecting or accepting a project is not just made on the basis of NPV, there are many other factors which are taken into consideration.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONThere are many projects which a company will have to undertake to meet statutory and regulatory requirements.
In real world, rejecting or accepting a project is not just made on the basis of NPV, there are many other factors which are taken into consideration. -
Question 432 of 999CB1005206
Question 432
FlagA company has 5m ordinary shares in existence and 2m 7% convertible preference shares. Both categories of shares have a par value of 25p. The convertible shares can be exchanged for ordinary shares on a 1 for 1 basis. The company’s net profit was £800,000. What is the company’s diluted earnings per share?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONDiluted EPS is calculated assuming all the convertibles will get converted.
Diluted EPS = 800000$\times$100/7m = 11.4p
[We have converted £800,000 into pence because options are given in pence]Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONDiluted EPS is calculated assuming all the convertibles will get converted.
Diluted EPS = 800000$\times$100/7m = 11.4p
[We have converted £800,000 into pence because options are given in pence] -
Question 433 of 999CB1005262
Question 433
FlagA company’s ordinary shares have a nominal value of 25p. The current market price of a share is 90p. The directors are planning to issue new shares. Which of the following statements best describes the restrictions on the issue price for the new shares?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONOption A is incorrect because directors can issue the shares for more than 90p but it is unlikely that they would be able to sell them.
Option B is correct because directors are not allowed to share at a price lower than the nominal value of the shares, that is at a discount.
Option C is incorrect because directors can issue the shares for more than 90p but it is unlikely that they would be able to sell them.
Option D is incorrect because directors can sell the shares at any price between 25p and 90p.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONOption A is incorrect because directors can issue the shares for more than 90p but it is unlikely that they would be able to sell them.
Option B is correct because directors are not allowed to share at a price lower than the nominal value of the shares, that is at a discount.
Option C is incorrect because directors can issue the shares for more than 90p but it is unlikely that they would be able to sell them.
Option D is incorrect because directors can sell the shares at any price between 25p and 90p. -
Question 434 of 999CB1005264
Question 434
FlagA company renews its bank overdraft facility in September of every year and last renewed it in September 2008. The company went overdrawn in February 2009 by an amount that was less than the overdraft facility. The finance director gave the bank manager a cash forecast that indicates that the overdraft is likely to be repaid in June 2009.
Which of the following is the earliest that the bank would be permitted to demand settlement of the amount borrowed on overdraft?Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONThere is no fixed repayment period for overdraft and it can be demanded back as and when banks wants it back.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONThere is no fixed repayment period for overdraft and it can be demanded back as and when banks wants it back.
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Question 435 of 999CB1005265
Question 435
FlagA UK manufacturing company has entered into a futures contract that requires it to deliver an agreed sum of dollar US to a counterparty at an agreed date in the future. Which of the following best describes the likely impact on the manufacturing company’s margin on the contract if the value of the dollar US rises against the company’s home currency?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONIf the dollar US rises against the company’s home currency then the manufacturing company will get less of their home currency, so they are facing a loss. It is possible for manufacturing company to have faced a loss which exceeds the margin of the contract, this would require the company to deposit additional margin.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONIf the dollar US rises against the company’s home currency then the manufacturing company will get less of their home currency, so they are facing a loss. It is possible for manufacturing company to have faced a loss which exceeds the margin of the contract, this would require the company to deposit additional margin.
-
Question 436 of 999CB1005266
Question 436
FlagAn actuarial consultancy is due to receive a substantial payment in dollar US from an
overseas client on 31 July 2009. It has decided to purchase an option to protect itself
from fluctuations in the value of the dollar US. Which of the following attributes is the
most important aspect of the option contract?Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONIf the actuarial consultancy is receiving dollar US from an overseas client then they would have to sell it for their home currency.
So, they need to buy a put option.
This option can be European or American as per company’s needs.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONIf the actuarial consultancy is receiving dollar US from an overseas client then they would have to sell it for their home currency.
So, they need to buy a put option.
This option can be European or American as per company’s needs. -
Question 437 of 999CB1005270
Question 437
FlagWhich of the following is a realistic “worst case” scenario for an issuing house that
has underwritten a share issue?Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONUnderwriters provide insurance to the issuing company that they would ensure all the shares of the company are sold in the market.
So the worst case scenario for the underwriters would be that they would have to purchase the unsold shares at the agreed price and then sell them at a loss, this might happen when the underwriters has valued the shares of the company at a price which is more than what market value the shares for, because of which some shares are left unsold.In case the shares of the company are sold by the underwriters then it becomes the legal obligation of the issuing company to pay the underwriters the agreed fees.
Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONUnderwriters provide insurance to the issuing company that they would ensure all the shares of the company are sold in the market.
So the worst case scenario for the underwriters would be that they would have to purchase the unsold shares at the agreed price and then sell them at a loss, this might happen when the underwriters has valued the shares of the company at a price which is more than what market value the shares for, because of which some shares are left unsold.In case the shares of the company are sold by the underwriters then it becomes the legal obligation of the issuing company to pay the underwriters the agreed fees.
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Question 438 of 999CB1005271
Question 438
FlagWhich of the following is NOT a potentially valid interpretation of the fact that the
creditors’ turnover period based on figures from a company’s annual report is very
rapid?Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONOption A is a correct interpretation of why the credit turnover period for a company might be low, as lower credit turnover period would mean that time lag between company ordering the product and the supplier supplying the product would also be low. And, plus having a good relationship with the suppliers would also mean that company can easily get trade credit.
Option B is correct, the credit turnover period of the company could have drastically changed by the time the audited financial statements are posted, which makes the figures in the financial statements less relevant.
Option C is incorrect interpretation, as for a company with rapid credit turnover period would have no difficulty getting the trade credit.
Option D is correct interpretation, if the company has no liquidity problems then it does not make sense for them to delay the payment to creditors.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONOption A is a correct interpretation of why the credit turnover period for a company might be low, as lower credit turnover period would mean that time lag between company ordering the product and the supplier supplying the product would also be low. And, plus having a good relationship with the suppliers would also mean that company can easily get trade credit.
Option B is correct, the credit turnover period of the company could have drastically changed by the time the audited financial statements are posted, which makes the figures in the financial statements less relevant.
Option C is incorrect interpretation, as for a company with rapid credit turnover period would have no difficulty getting the trade credit.
Option D is correct interpretation, if the company has no liquidity problems then it does not make sense for them to delay the payment to creditors. -
Question 439 of 999CB1005275
Question 439
FlagA company has asked a potential supplier to provide trade credit and has submitted its
most recent set of audited financial statements to demonstrate its liquidity position.
Which of the following is the most likely limitation of the financial statements for this
purpose?Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONOption A is incorrect because it is possible to assess the liquidity of the company from the published financial statements.
Option B is incorrect because if the statements are audited then truth and fairness of the financial statements can be relied upon.
Option C is incorrect because the statements are audited so the credibility of the financial statements can be trusted.
Option D is correct because statements are published months after the financial year has already ended, so they are out of date for this purpose.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONOption A is incorrect because it is possible to assess the liquidity of the company from the published financial statements.
Option B is incorrect because if the statements are audited then truth and fairness of the financial statements can be relied upon.
Option C is incorrect because the statements are audited so the credibility of the financial statements can be trusted.
Option D is correct because statements are published months after the financial year has already ended, so they are out of date for this purpose. -
Question 440 of 999CB1005276
Question 440
FlagWhich of the following is likely to cause the greatest concern for a shareholder who
wishes to analyse the liquidity position of a company?Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONThe major difference between current ratio and quick ratio is that the former includes all those assets who fall under the category of ‘current assets’ but are not immediately realizable. So the more reliable measure of liquidity position of the company is quick ratio.
So a declining quick ratio is more concerning than a declining current ratio.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONThe major difference between current ratio and quick ratio is that the former includes all those assets who fall under the category of ‘current assets’ but are not immediately realizable. So the more reliable measure of liquidity position of the company is quick ratio.
So a declining quick ratio is more concerning than a declining current ratio. -
Question 441 of 999CB1005279
Question 441
FlagWhich of the following best describes the responsibility of an external auditor?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONOption A is correct because the auditors express their opinion regarding the financial statements.
Option B is incorrect because the auditors do not CERTIFY the accuracy of the financial statements, it is possible in some rare cases for different external auditor to have a different opinion than the current external auditor so there is no certification in auditing.
Option C is incorrect because external auditors do not eliminate all the agency problems.
Option D is incorrect because external auditors’ role is only to give their opinion on truth and fairness of the financial statements.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONOption A is correct because the auditors express their opinion regarding the financial statements.
Option B is incorrect because the auditors do not CERTIFY the accuracy of the financial statements, it is possible in some rare cases for different external auditor to have a different opinion than the current external auditor so there is no certification in auditing.
Option C is incorrect because external auditors do not eliminate all the agency problems.
Option D is incorrect because external auditors’ role is only to give their opinion on truth and fairness of the financial statements. -
Question 442 of 999CB1005281
Question 442
FlagA company has inventories of £500,000, trade receivables of £600,000, a bank
overdraft of £200,000 and trade payables of £450,000. What is the company’s quick
ratio?Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONQuick ratio = Liquid Assets/Current liabilities
Inventories do not come under liquid assets.
Quick ratio= 600000/(450000+200000) = 60/65 = 0.923:1 which can be approximated as 0.9:1.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONQuick ratio = Liquid Assets/Current liabilities
Inventories do not come under liquid assets.
Quick ratio= 600000/(450000+200000) = 60/65 = 0.923:1 which can be approximated as 0.9:1. -
Question 443 of 999CB1005286
Question 443
FlagWhile valuing the assets of insurance companies for solvency purpose, regulators stipulate
that the fair value change (if positive) is taken as zero. This is an example of concept ofCorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONIt is prudent to recognize any negative change in the fair value of assets but not the positive change in the fair value of the assets.
Materiality concept as per which some assets which are immaterial for the company is regarded as expenses, for example: a purchase of a single calculator would not be recorded as asset for big 4. This concept is not being illustrated in the above scenario.
Matching concept says that company should match the expense of current period with the revenue of the current period, again this concept is not being illustrated in the above scenario.
Accrual concept says to recognize expense as and when it is incurred irrespective of whether it is paid for or not, this concept is not being illustrated in the above scenario.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONIt is prudent to recognize any negative change in the fair value of assets but not the positive change in the fair value of the assets.
Materiality concept as per which some assets which are immaterial for the company is regarded as expenses, for example: a purchase of a single calculator would not be recorded as asset for big 4. This concept is not being illustrated in the above scenario.
Matching concept says that company should match the expense of current period with the revenue of the current period, again this concept is not being illustrated in the above scenario.
Accrual concept says to recognize expense as and when it is incurred irrespective of whether it is paid for or not, this concept is not being illustrated in the above scenario. -
Question 444 of 999CB1005289
Question 444
FlagBeyond budgeting implies:
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONBeyond budgeting is when the branches are made to compete with each other, so as to build a spirit of competition between them.
So the comparison is made on the basis of the actual results of the various units of the business.
Option A is zero based budgeting.
Option B is simply poor making of budget.
Option D is bottom-up approach of budgeting.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONBeyond budgeting is when the branches are made to compete with each other, so as to build a spirit of competition between them.
So the comparison is made on the basis of the actual results of the various units of the business.
Option A is zero based budgeting.
Option B is simply poor making of budget.
Option D is bottom-up approach of budgeting. -
Question 445 of 999CB1005290
Question 445
FlagWhich of the following is not a problem with forecasting?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONOption A is not a problem with forecasting, in fact if there is no major change in the external environment then that is a good thing for the forecasting.
Option B is a problem with forecasting, the forecasting is based on the data, so unsuitable data is a limitation of forecasting.
Option C is a problem, unexpected competitors will make any forecasting done irrelevant as now a new strategy is needed to tackle with the competitors’ disruptive technology.
Option D is a problem, correlation between variables can be difficult to figure out and an interaction term will have to be added for the same in the model.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONOption A is not a problem with forecasting, in fact if there is no major change in the external environment then that is a good thing for the forecasting.
Option B is a problem with forecasting, the forecasting is based on the data, so unsuitable data is a limitation of forecasting.
Option C is a problem, unexpected competitors will make any forecasting done irrelevant as now a new strategy is needed to tackle with the competitors’ disruptive technology.
Option D is a problem, correlation between variables can be difficult to figure out and an interaction term will have to be added for the same in the model. -
Question 446 of 999CB1005292
Question 446
FlagPreference shares are generally considered as being more like debt than equity. Which of
the following appropriately explains this?Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONTax treatment of dividend paid on preference shares is same as that of dividend paid on equity shares.
The marketability of preference shares is not as much as that of debt.
The fixed nature of participation in profits is same as that of debt, there is no upper cap on the participation in profits for the equity.
It is possible to make capital gains or losses on both equity and preference shares.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONTax treatment of dividend paid on preference shares is same as that of dividend paid on equity shares.
The marketability of preference shares is not as much as that of debt.
The fixed nature of participation in profits is same as that of debt, there is no upper cap on the participation in profits for the equity.
It is possible to make capital gains or losses on both equity and preference shares. -
Question 447 of 999CB1005294
Question 447
FlagWhich of the following statements is NOT true about Internal Rate of Return (IRR) method
of project appraisalCorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONOption A is true IRR can have multiple or no solutions at all.
Option B is true, since the above option is true NPV is more popular method of project evaluation as compared to IRR.
Option C is true, as IRR does give us the return which is achieved by undertaking the project.
Option D is not true, as IRR does not take riskiness of the project into consideration so it is not an appropriate method to be used to compare two mutually exclusive projects.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONOption A is true IRR can have multiple or no solutions at all.
Option B is true, since the above option is true NPV is more popular method of project evaluation as compared to IRR.
Option C is true, as IRR does give us the return which is achieved by undertaking the project.
Option D is not true, as IRR does not take riskiness of the project into consideration so it is not an appropriate method to be used to compare two mutually exclusive projects. -
Question 448 of 999CB1005296
Question 448
FlagValue of Options increases with:
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONMore is the volatility in the share price, the higher the price of the option would be. Since, then it would be more probable that the share price move in favor of option holder.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONMore is the volatility in the share price, the higher the price of the option would be. Since, then it would be more probable that the share price move in favor of option holder.
-
Question 449 of 999CB1005297
Question 449
FlagWhich of the following investors in the derivatives market may find that the contract (they
have entered into) is a liability at expiry?
I. Buyer of a call option
II. Writer of a put option
III.Buyer of a put optionCorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONBuyer of the option would have the right to buy (or sell) the option at its expiry so it is not a liability for them.
Writer of the option on the other hand would have to fulfil the obligation if the share price moves against them, then it would become a liability for them.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONBuyer of the option would have the right to buy (or sell) the option at its expiry so it is not a liability for them.
Writer of the option on the other hand would have to fulfil the obligation if the share price moves against them, then it would become a liability for them. -
Question 450 of 999CB1005298
Question 450
FlagA Zero Coupon bond:
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONOption A is incorrect because a ZCB does earn interest on the money invested, if it offered no interest then there would be no reason for investor to purchase them.
Option B is correct because a ZCB is issued at a value which is less than its redemption value, in this way the interest is paid to the investor. You buy for less and get the full amount at the maturity.
Option C is incorrect because a ZCB does not make any coupon payments.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONOption A is incorrect because a ZCB does earn interest on the money invested, if it offered no interest then there would be no reason for investor to purchase them.
Option B is correct because a ZCB is issued at a value which is less than its redemption value, in this way the interest is paid to the investor. You buy for less and get the full amount at the maturity.
Option C is incorrect because a ZCB does not make any coupon payments. -
Question 451 of 999CB1005331
Question 451
FlagThe distinction between an American Option and European Option is that
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONAmerican Option can be exercised anytime before the maturity date.
European Option can only be exercised only at the time of the maturity of the option.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONAmerican Option can be exercised anytime before the maturity date.
European Option can only be exercised only at the time of the maturity of the option. -
Question 452 of 999CB1005332
Question 452
FlagPeer to Peer Lending is a type of
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONPeer-to-peer lending is another name for loan based crowdfunding.
Shadow banking are banks which have less restrictions than a normal bank.
Non-recourse financing is again something completely different.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONPeer-to-peer lending is another name for loan based crowdfunding.
Shadow banking are banks which have less restrictions than a normal bank.
Non-recourse financing is again something completely different. -
Question 453 of 999CB1005333
Question 453
FlagRecognition of a lease as a finance lease as opposed to an operating lease by the lessee will
most likely result in a higher:Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONIf a finance lease is recognized as operating lease then the lease payments would be shows as liability in the balance sheet and the asset would be shown under the asset side as if it was purchased.
Under operating lease the asset would not be recognized in the financial statements, and only the lease payments made would be recognized and that to as an expense.
So, under finance lease both liability side and asset side would be impacted, which would result in a higher debt-to-asset ratio.Asset taken on lease is not considered as current asset so it will have no impact on liquidity ratios.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONIf a finance lease is recognized as operating lease then the lease payments would be shows as liability in the balance sheet and the asset would be shown under the asset side as if it was purchased.
Under operating lease the asset would not be recognized in the financial statements, and only the lease payments made would be recognized and that to as an expense.
So, under finance lease both liability side and asset side would be impacted, which would result in a higher debt-to-asset ratio.Asset taken on lease is not considered as current asset so it will have no impact on liquidity ratios.
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Question 454 of 999CB1005334
Question 454
FlagStatement 1: Apart from normal dividends, cumulative preference shares get an additional
dividend if the company’s profits exceed a pre-specified level.Statement 2: From the investor’s perspective, callable common shares are more risky than
puttable common shares.Which of the following is most likely?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONCumulative preference shareholders would be paid extra dividends in the upcoming year if the company does not make dividend payment in the current year for whatever reason, so the payment of extra dividend to preference shareholder happens only if dividend was not paid in the previous year it has nothing to do with company making extra profit in the current year; so statement I is incorrect.
Puttable common shares are shares which an investor CAN sell directly to the company at a specified price, this gives shareholder the flexibility.
Callable common shares are shares which the company CAN buy back from the shareholders at a specified price, so this company more flexibility.
So from an investor’s perspective callable common shares are more risky.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONCumulative preference shareholders would be paid extra dividends in the upcoming year if the company does not make dividend payment in the current year for whatever reason, so the payment of extra dividend to preference shareholder happens only if dividend was not paid in the previous year it has nothing to do with company making extra profit in the current year; so statement I is incorrect.
Puttable common shares are shares which an investor CAN sell directly to the company at a specified price, this gives shareholder the flexibility.
Callable common shares are shares which the company CAN buy back from the shareholders at a specified price, so this company more flexibility.
So from an investor’s perspective callable common shares are more risky. -
Question 455 of 999CB1005335
Question 455
FlagHow might the interest of the company’s management be NOT aligned with those of
shareholdersCorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONCompany’s managements’ interest would be aligned with that of shareholders if their remuneration and bonus is linked with company’s earnings, share price.
But linking managements’ bonus with company’s credit rating would align their interest with that of debt-holders.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONCompany’s managements’ interest would be aligned with that of shareholders if their remuneration and bonus is linked with company’s earnings, share price.
But linking managements’ bonus with company’s credit rating would align their interest with that of debt-holders. -
Question 456 of 999CB1005336
Question 456
FlagA health insurance company allows an inward and outward reinsurance in its business. Which
amongst the following in revenue account will be directly impacted.Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONThis is intuitive that if company allows an inward and outward reinsurance, then they will have net incurred claims and net earned premiums.
Engaging in reinsurance would not have any impact on share capital of the company.
The insurer would receive gross premium from the policyholder and the reinsurance would be paid reinsurance premium.
Similarly, insurer would pay gross claim to the policyholder but only a part of it would be paid by the insurer from their pocket rest would be paid by the reinsurer.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONThis is intuitive that if company allows an inward and outward reinsurance, then they will have net incurred claims and net earned premiums.
Engaging in reinsurance would not have any impact on share capital of the company.
The insurer would receive gross premium from the policyholder and the reinsurance would be paid reinsurance premium.
Similarly, insurer would pay gross claim to the policyholder but only a part of it would be paid by the insurer from their pocket rest would be paid by the reinsurer. -
Question 457 of 999CB1005338
Question 457
FlagWhich of the option is correct using as an approach to forecasting?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONForecasting can be done by seeking an expert opinion, they have knowledge of the industry so they can predict the performance, opportunities and threats coming up.
Time series analysis make use of past value of the process to predict the future value of the process, so this is forecasting.
Delphi technique is the classic way of forecasting.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONForecasting can be done by seeking an expert opinion, they have knowledge of the industry so they can predict the performance, opportunities and threats coming up.
Time series analysis make use of past value of the process to predict the future value of the process, so this is forecasting.
Delphi technique is the classic way of forecasting. -
Question 458 of 999CB1005339
Question 458
FlagThe cash-flow position can be improved by?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONDeferring the trade receivables payment would damage the cash-flow position, as trade receivables is something that company would receive.
Fast payment of trade payables, that is something that the company will have to pay, would also damage the cash-flow position.
Disposing of an asset will lead to inflow of cash, so this will improve the cash-flow position.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONDeferring the trade receivables payment would damage the cash-flow position, as trade receivables is something that company would receive.
Fast payment of trade payables, that is something that the company will have to pay, would also damage the cash-flow position.
Disposing of an asset will lead to inflow of cash, so this will improve the cash-flow position. -
Question 459 of 999CB1005340
Question 459
FlagA company has INR 500,000 line of credit at 10.0% pa with a 1.0% pa commitment fee on
the full amount available. The company draws down INR 100,000 for 6 months. The annual
financing cost of this arrangement is:Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONAmount of interest that the company will have to pay = 100000$\times$0.1 = INR 10,000
Commitment fees paid by the company = 500000$\times$0.01 = INR 5,000
The annual cost of financing = (10000+5000)/100000$\times$100 = 15%.
The annual cost of financing will be calculated on the amount drawn by the company and not on the entire amount sanctioned to the company.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONAmount of interest that the company will have to pay = 100000$\times$0.1 = INR 10,000
Commitment fees paid by the company = 500000$\times$0.01 = INR 5,000
The annual cost of financing = (10000+5000)/100000$\times$100 = 15%.
The annual cost of financing will be calculated on the amount drawn by the company and not on the entire amount sanctioned to the company. -
Question 460 of 999CB1005341
Question 460
FlagWhich of the following is not true about taxation in India?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONThere is no reason for insurance companies to be exempted from taxation.
In India, the individual are taxed as per different slab rates.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONThere is no reason for insurance companies to be exempted from taxation.
In India, the individual are taxed as per different slab rates. -
Question 461 of 999CB1005342
Question 461
FlagWhich of the following best describes the possibility of an agency relationship between
company directors and debenture holders?Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONDirectors’ are appointed and can be removed by the shareholders, which gives them a strong incentive to satisfy the shareholders.
Shareholders want maximum return which can lead to directors undertaking projects which provides maximum return, but debt-holders want directors to undertake projects which provides them with just enough return to make profit. And, we know higher the return offered by the project higher would be the risk associated with the project.
This leads to agency issues between directors and debt-holders.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONDirectors’ are appointed and can be removed by the shareholders, which gives them a strong incentive to satisfy the shareholders.
Shareholders want maximum return which can lead to directors undertaking projects which provides maximum return, but debt-holders want directors to undertake projects which provides them with just enough return to make profit. And, we know higher the return offered by the project higher would be the risk associated with the project.
This leads to agency issues between directors and debt-holders. -
Question 462 of 999CB1005343
Question 462
FlagA project that has been under review for some time has been modified so that the cash
receipts will remain the same, but their timing will be brought forward throughout the length
of the project. How will this affect the project’s internal rate of return and net present value
(using a positive risk discount rate)?Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONIf the cash receipts are brought forward then the value of the receipts would be higher for the company.
This would not only increase the internal rate of return but would also increase NPV of the project.
The general thumb rule is delay the payments as much as possible to increase the returns and bring forward the cash receipts as much as possible.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONIf the cash receipts are brought forward then the value of the receipts would be higher for the company.
This would not only increase the internal rate of return but would also increase NPV of the project.
The general thumb rule is delay the payments as much as possible to increase the returns and bring forward the cash receipts as much as possible. -
Question 463 of 999CB1005344
Question 463
FlagIndia Pvt. Ltd. has 2 lakh shares outstanding priced at Rs.50 a share. A rights issue will allow
one share to be purchased for every five shares currently held by shareholders for Rs.30
each. Which of the following will be true post the rights issue?Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONPost-right price = (200000$\times$50 + 200000$\times$1/5$\times$30)/(200000+200000$\times$1/5) = Rs. 46.67
After the right shares issue, the total number of shares of the company in the market = 200000+200000$\times$1/5 = 2,40,000
After the right shares issue, amount raised by the company = 200000$\times$1/5$\times$30 = Rs. 12,00,000.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONPost-right price = (200000$\times$50 + 200000$\times$1/5$\times$30)/(200000+200000$\times$1/5) = Rs. 46.67
After the right shares issue, the total number of shares of the company in the market = 200000+200000$\times$1/5 = 2,40,000
After the right shares issue, amount raised by the company = 200000$\times$1/5$\times$30 = Rs. 12,00,000. -
Question 464 of 999CB1005345
Question 464
FlagWhich accounting ratio is generally not used to measure profitability?
Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONQuick ratio is a measure of liquidity position of the company it is not a measure of profitability of the company.
Rest all the ratios are a measure of profit of the company.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONQuick ratio is a measure of liquidity position of the company it is not a measure of profitability of the company.
Rest all the ratios are a measure of profit of the company. -
Question 465 of 999CB1005376
Question 465
FlagCost of equity is
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONEquity holders take additional risk then an investor who invests their money in risk-free assets like Government bonds, so they expect a higher rate of return than risk-free return.
An investor who chose to invest in equity has forgone using their money for their own business or simply investing in some other company, so the cost of equity is the opportunity cost of capital.
Weighted average cost of capital = Cost of Equity$\times$Weight of equity in capital structure+Cost of debt$\times$Weight of debt in capital structure.
So all the options are correctIncorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONEquity holders take additional risk then an investor who invests their money in risk-free assets like Government bonds, so they expect a higher rate of return than risk-free return.
An investor who chose to invest in equity has forgone using their money for their own business or simply investing in some other company, so the cost of equity is the opportunity cost of capital.
Weighted average cost of capital = Cost of Equity$\times$Weight of equity in capital structure+Cost of debt$\times$Weight of debt in capital structure.
So all the options are correct -
Question 466 of 999CB1005377
Question 466
FlagWhat is the primary goal of the financial manager of an organization?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONThe goal of some shareholders might be to reduce the volatility of returns they receive or maximize the dividend payouts. And, the goal of directors would be to comply with all the laws and regulations.
But, the goal of financial manager would always be to maximize the wealth of shareholders, which is nothing but maximizing the market value of each shareholder’s stake.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONThe goal of some shareholders might be to reduce the volatility of returns they receive or maximize the dividend payouts. And, the goal of directors would be to comply with all the laws and regulations.
But, the goal of financial manager would always be to maximize the wealth of shareholders, which is nothing but maximizing the market value of each shareholder’s stake. -
Question 467 of 999CB1005382
Question 467
FlagAn Australian company entered into a futures contract to exchange Australian dollars for
one million US dollars on 31 December 2017. Which of the following will happen if the US
dollar strengthens against the Australian dollar?Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONFirst of all this is a futures contract so any refund or any extra that the company would receive would be from the clearing house and not from the counterparty.
The question is saying that the company is exchanging Australian dollars FOR US dollars, so they are GIVING Australia dollars to purchase US dollars.
So, if US dollar strengthens against Australia dollars then the company in question will have to give more of Australian dollars to buy the same amount of US dollars, so they are facing a loss.
In such case they would receive a partial refund of the margin they have deposited with the clearing house.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONFirst of all this is a futures contract so any refund or any extra that the company would receive would be from the clearing house and not from the counterparty.
The question is saying that the company is exchanging Australian dollars FOR US dollars, so they are GIVING Australia dollars to purchase US dollars.
So, if US dollar strengthens against Australia dollars then the company in question will have to give more of Australian dollars to buy the same amount of US dollars, so they are facing a loss.
In such case they would receive a partial refund of the margin they have deposited with the clearing house. -
Question 468 of 999CB1005383
Question 468
FlagCompany X based in the UK has an overseas subsidiary, which makes gross profits of Rs 10m. These profits are taxed at 15% tax in the overseas territory. Assuming that the corporation tax rate is 20% in the UK and that a double taxation agreement is in force with the overseas territory, Company X will have to pay:
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONFirstly the tax that would be paid by Company X would be paid on the gross profit and not on the profit net of tax.
Next, under the double taxation agreement the company in question can offset the 15% tax that they have already paid against the 20% tax that they are supposed to pay in UK, so they would have to pay 5% tax on the gross profits to the UK government.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONFirstly the tax that would be paid by Company X would be paid on the gross profit and not on the profit net of tax.
Next, under the double taxation agreement the company in question can offset the 15% tax that they have already paid against the 20% tax that they are supposed to pay in UK, so they would have to pay 5% tax on the gross profits to the UK government. -
Question 469 of 999CB1005384
Question 469
FlagWhich one of the following is the correct formula for the price earnings ratio?
Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONAs the name suggests the formula for Price/Earnings ratio = Market price of share/Earnings of the company. It shows the number of times of Earnings that the shareholders is ready to pay for the company, it shows the belief that the shareholders have on the future earnings of the company.
Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONAs the name suggests the formula for Price/Earnings ratio = Market price of share/Earnings of the company. It shows the number of times of Earnings that the shareholders is ready to pay for the company, it shows the belief that the shareholders have on the future earnings of the company.
-
Question 470 of 999CB1005385
Question 470
FlagWhile calculating Inventory turnover period, Inventories include
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONThe very definition of inventory is the stock of finished, raw materials and work-in-progress that company has.
So all the options would be included in the inventory while calculating the inventory turnover period for a company.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONThe very definition of inventory is the stock of finished, raw materials and work-in-progress that company has.
So all the options would be included in the inventory while calculating the inventory turnover period for a company. -
Question 471 of 999CB1005387
Question 471
FlagWhich of the following leases would least likely be classified as an operating lease by the
lessee?Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONOption A can be considered as operating lease as the life of the asset is significantly more than the period for which the asset has been leased.
Option B can be considered as operating lease as the ownership of the asset is reverting back to the lessor at the end of the lease term, it can also happen in finance lease as well but out of the other options that are available this is not the least likely option.
Option C cannot be considered as operating lease as the lessee is buying the leased asset for Rs. 1 at the end of the lease period, which cannot reasonably be the value of the asset if it was leased for a period which is less than the life of the asset.
Option D can be considered as operating lease, since the fair value of the leased asset is Rs. 20 million and the PV of lease payment is given as Rs. 13 million which is significantly less. So it hints that the asset was leased for a period which is less than the life of the asset.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONOption A can be considered as operating lease as the life of the asset is significantly more than the period for which the asset has been leased.
Option B can be considered as operating lease as the ownership of the asset is reverting back to the lessor at the end of the lease term, it can also happen in finance lease as well but out of the other options that are available this is not the least likely option.
Option C cannot be considered as operating lease as the lessee is buying the leased asset for Rs. 1 at the end of the lease period, which cannot reasonably be the value of the asset if it was leased for a period which is less than the life of the asset.
Option D can be considered as operating lease, since the fair value of the leased asset is Rs. 20 million and the PV of lease payment is given as Rs. 13 million which is significantly less. So it hints that the asset was leased for a period which is less than the life of the asset. -
Question 472 of 999CB1005389
Question 472
FlagThe following figures are given for A Ltd.
Cost of debt = 12%
Cost of equity = 18%
Value of debt = 2 lakhs
Value of equity = 2 lakhs
Find the cost of capital and changed cost of capital if debt equity proportion changes to 3: 1 assuming that beta does not change.Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONCurrently the debt-equity ratio = 1:1
So the cost of capital = 0.5$\times$12%+0.5$\times$18% = 15%.
Changed debt-equity ratio = 3:1
So the changed cost of capital = 3/4$\times$12%+1/4$\times$18% = 13.5%Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONCurrently the debt-equity ratio = 1:1
So the cost of capital = 0.5$\times$12%+0.5$\times$18% = 15%.
Changed debt-equity ratio = 3:1
So the changed cost of capital = 3/4$\times$12%+1/4$\times$18% = 13.5% -
Question 473 of 999CB1005393
Question 473
FlagWhy is accounting profit not a true measure of shareholder value in life insurance
business?Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONFor a life insurance company the profit is realized over the years, so accounting profit is not a true measure of shareholder value in life insurance business.
The accounting profit is calculated on the basis of historical costs, so it is not reliable measure of shareholder value. As since the time the profit was posted and now the value of shareholder would have drastically changed.
Creative accounting can be used to manipulate the profits of a company like for example: assuming that a policy cannot result in any more claims and recording the profit for the same, so it is not a true measure of shareholder value.
So all the options are correct reasoning.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONFor a life insurance company the profit is realized over the years, so accounting profit is not a true measure of shareholder value in life insurance business.
The accounting profit is calculated on the basis of historical costs, so it is not reliable measure of shareholder value. As since the time the profit was posted and now the value of shareholder would have drastically changed.
Creative accounting can be used to manipulate the profits of a company like for example: assuming that a policy cannot result in any more claims and recording the profit for the same, so it is not a true measure of shareholder value.
So all the options are correct reasoning. -
Question 474 of 999CB1005396
Question 474
FlagWhich of these can be classified as a systemic risk?
Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONBond defaults is a specific issue so this risk is specific to a company and can be diversified away by investing in those companies whose portfolio only have government bonds.
Demonetization would affect every company in the nation, so this is a systematic risk.
Reputational damage of one company will not affect all the companies in the market so this is also a specific risk.
Risk of high operating cost of one company can be diversified away by investing in a company with low operating cost.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONBond defaults is a specific issue so this risk is specific to a company and can be diversified away by investing in those companies whose portfolio only have government bonds.
Demonetization would affect every company in the nation, so this is a systematic risk.
Reputational damage of one company will not affect all the companies in the market so this is also a specific risk.
Risk of high operating cost of one company can be diversified away by investing in a company with low operating cost. -
Question 475 of 999CB1005397
Question 475
FlagWhich of the following could cause a company’s earnings per share figure to be diluted?
Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONOption A is incorrect because a decline in revenue would causing a fall in EPS but not a dilution of EPS.
Option B is incorrect because a loss on the revaluation of an asset would also cause a fall in EPS and not a dilution of EPS.
Option C is same as option B.
Option D is correct because, issue of a convertible bond would increase the number of potential splits that would be made between the earnings of the company. And, hence this dilutes the EPS of the company.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONOption A is incorrect because a decline in revenue would causing a fall in EPS but not a dilution of EPS.
Option B is incorrect because a loss on the revaluation of an asset would also cause a fall in EPS and not a dilution of EPS.
Option C is same as option B.
Option D is correct because, issue of a convertible bond would increase the number of potential splits that would be made between the earnings of the company. And, hence this dilutes the EPS of the company. -
Question 476 of 999CB1005401
Question 476
FlagGroupon is a holding company that has two subsidiaries, ABC and XYZ. During the year,
Groupon recorded sales of Rs 10 crores, including sales of Rs 2 crores to ABC. ABC
recorded sales of Rs 5 crores, including sales of Rs 3 crores to XYZ. XYZ recorded sales
of Rs 4 crores including sales of Rs1.5 crores to Groupon.
What is the value of the total group sales of Groupon?Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONIn the consolidated financial statement the transaction between the group companies are cancelled out.
So the sale of 2 crores would be removed from the total sales of Groupon; sales of 3 crores made by ABC to XYZ would be removed from the total sales of ABC and so on.
So the total group sales of Groupon = (10-2)+(5-3)+(4-1.5) = 12.5 crores.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONIn the consolidated financial statement the transaction between the group companies are cancelled out.
So the sale of 2 crores would be removed from the total sales of Groupon; sales of 3 crores made by ABC to XYZ would be removed from the total sales of ABC and so on.
So the total group sales of Groupon = (10-2)+(5-3)+(4-1.5) = 12.5 crores. -
Question 477 of 999CB1005438
Question 477
FlagWhy does tax legislation not usually allow depreciation recorded in the books as an
expense, but grants capital allowances instead for companies?Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONThere are different ways of calculating depreciation which can be used by accountants, there can be a perfectly valid reason for doing that. So tax authorities cannot just ask people to follow one single method of depreciating assets. So to bring consistency they provide for capital allowance.
Option A is incorrect because there are many income and expenses recognized in the books of account and allowed for the purpose of tax calculation.
Option C is also incorrect because there are many expenses which are estimated but not paid for, like for example salary to owner of the company.
Option D is also incorrect because it is not a valid explanation.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONThere are different ways of calculating depreciation which can be used by accountants, there can be a perfectly valid reason for doing that. So tax authorities cannot just ask people to follow one single method of depreciating assets. So to bring consistency they provide for capital allowance.
Option A is incorrect because there are many income and expenses recognized in the books of account and allowed for the purpose of tax calculation.
Option C is also incorrect because there are many expenses which are estimated but not paid for, like for example salary to owner of the company.
Option D is also incorrect because it is not a valid explanation. -
Question 478 of 999CB1005439
Question 478
FlagWhich of the following best explains why a falling share price is thought to impose some
discipline on weak directors of a company?Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONOption A is incorrect because it is not possible for shareholders to withdraw their money from the company, as the shares are irredeemable. Although they have the options of selling the shares to some other company.
Option B is incorrect because rise in cost of capital will not impose discipline in the directors, it is when their job and reputation is at stake that they act disciplined.
Option C is incorrect because not all directors’ remunerations and bonus includes shares, so even then not all directors would act disciplined.
Option D is correct because shareholders of a public company have the option of selling their shares to a predator company. The predator company will offer to the existing shareholders a price which is higher than the current market price, which was brought down due to the indiscipline of the weak directors, and promise to the existing shareholder better management of the company moving forward.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONOption A is incorrect because it is not possible for shareholders to withdraw their money from the company, as the shares are irredeemable. Although they have the options of selling the shares to some other company.
Option B is incorrect because rise in cost of capital will not impose discipline in the directors, it is when their job and reputation is at stake that they act disciplined.
Option C is incorrect because not all directors’ remunerations and bonus includes shares, so even then not all directors would act disciplined.
Option D is correct because shareholders of a public company have the option of selling their shares to a predator company. The predator company will offer to the existing shareholders a price which is higher than the current market price, which was brought down due to the indiscipline of the weak directors, and promise to the existing shareholder better management of the company moving forward. -
Question 479 of 999CB1005440
Question 479
FlagABC Ltd has 1,00,000 shares outstanding at a price of Rs 120 per share. A rights issue will
allow 1 share for every 5 currently held by the shareholders for Rs 90 each. Which of the
following is true?Correct
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONPost-right share price = (100000$\times$120+100000$\times$1/5$\times$120)/(100000+100000$\times$1/5) = Rs. 115 per share.
Option A is correct.
Option B is incorrect because total number of shares after the right shares issue = 100000+20000 = 120000. So the total value of the company, 120000$\times$115 = Rs. 1,38,00,000.
Option C is incorrect because firm will raise = 20000$\times$90 = Rs. 18,00,000
Option C is incorrect because number of shares would rather increase to 120000.Incorrect
The correct answer is A.
EXPLANATIONPost-right share price = (100000$\times$120+100000$\times$1/5$\times$120)/(100000+100000$\times$1/5) = Rs. 115 per share.
Option A is correct.
Option B is incorrect because total number of shares after the right shares issue = 100000+20000 = 120000. So the total value of the company, 120000$\times$115 = Rs. 1,38,00,000.
Option C is incorrect because firm will raise = 20000$\times$90 = Rs. 18,00,000
Option C is incorrect because number of shares would rather increase to 120000. -
Question 480 of 999CB1005485
Question 480
FlagA company purchased an item of inventory for Rs 1500 and sold it for Rs 2000. Due to
rising prices, the inventory item’s replacement cost is Rs 2100. Which of the following
statements best describes the impact of the sale and replacement of this inventory?Correct
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONBook value of inventory = Rs. 1500
Sale price of inventory = Rs. 2000
Book profit on sale of inventory = Rs. 500
Realizable value of inventory is not recognized in the books of accounts, so the company has suffered a real loss of Rs. 100 on the sale of inventory.Incorrect
The correct answer is C.
EXPLANATIONBook value of inventory = Rs. 1500
Sale price of inventory = Rs. 2000
Book profit on sale of inventory = Rs. 500
Realizable value of inventory is not recognized in the books of accounts, so the company has suffered a real loss of Rs. 100 on the sale of inventory. -
Question 481 of 999CB1005488
Question 481
FlagWhich of the following is true regarding underwriting a security?
I. Underwriting means the financial intermediaries arrange to sell securities to the public
or to other institutions for a fee
II. The underwriters agree to take up any securities not sold at the pre-agreed price.
III. Underwriting assures the entity requiring funds that the full amount of money sought
will be obtained.
IV. It creates confidence in the securities being issued.Correct
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONUnderwriters provides insurance to the issuing company that all the shares issued would be sold, and if left unsold then all of it would be bought by the underwriters.
Underwriters charge a fees for the service that they provide, this can be in terms of commission or they can have an agreement to the buy the shares being issued at a price lower than the issuing price.
Many little known companies have sold 100% of their shares just because they had the backing of a well known underwriter.Incorrect
The correct answer is D.
EXPLANATIONUnderwriters provides insurance to the issuing company that all the shares issued would be sold, and if left unsold then all of it would be bought by the underwriters.
Underwriters charge a fees for the service that they provide, this can be in terms of commission or they can have an agreement to the buy the shares being issued at a price lower than the issuing price.
Many little known companies have sold 100% of their shares just because they had the backing of a well known underwriter. -
Question 482 of 999CB1005489
Question 482
FlagA Company has issued the following:
I. Subordinated Loan stock
II. Ordinary Shares
III. Preference Shares
IV. Floating Charge Debentures
State the order of priority in the event of winding up of the business.Correct
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONFloating charge debenture-holders are the first ones to be paid because in case of default in their payment, they can sue the company and crystallize all the assets of the company.
Next, Subordinated loan stock holders are paid. Even though they are junior debt, but they are still debt so they would be paid before the shareholders.
Next, preference shareholders would be paid because they are those shareholders who have priority in repayment.
Finally, if anything is left it would be paid to the equity shareholders.Incorrect
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATIONFloating charge debenture-holders are the first ones to be paid because in case of default in their payment, they can sue the company and crystallize all the assets of the company.
Next, Subordinated loan stock holders are paid. Even though they are junior debt, but they are still debt so they would be paid before the shareholders.
Next, preference shareholders would be paid because they are those shareholders who have priority in repayment.
Finally, if anything is left it would be paid to the equity shareholders. -
Question 483 of 999CB1005491
Question 483
FlagA project having a life of one year is started with initial investment of 100 lakhs with 10%
cost of capital. It’s NPV and IRR is found to be 10 lakhs and 21%. If cost of capital is
changed to 11% then which of the following is true?